17 OCTBER 2024
1. Consider the following statements:
1. Shri Siddeshwara Swami Biodiversity Heritage Site is located in Vijayapura district
2. Area of Shri Siddeshwara Swami Biodiversity Heritage Site 1,495 acres
3. The Nallur Tamarind Grove in Telangana was designated as India’s first Biodiversity Heritage Site
How many statements are true?
A. All statements are true
B. Only 2 statements are true
C. Only one statement is true
D. No statements are true
2. Consider the following statements about the selected Responsible AI Projects:
1. IIT Roorkee is working on synthetic data generation.
2. IIIT Delhi is working on AI ethical certification.
3. The projects are focused on tackling environmental challenges.
How many statements are true?
A. All statements are true
B. Only 2 statements are true
C. Only one statement is true
D. No statements are true
3. Consider the following statements about the Samarth Scheme:
1. The scheme aims to train 5 lakh individuals.
2. The scheme excludes spinning and weaving.
3. The scheme is implemented by the Ministry of Textiles.
How many statements are true?
A. All statements are true
B. Only 2 statements are true
C. Only one statement is true
D. No statements are true
4. Consider the following statements about the Minimum Support Price (MSP) for rabi crops:
1. The MSP for wheat has been increased by ₹150 per quintal for the 2025-26 marketing season.
2. The Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) recommends MSP for 22 crops.
3. The MSP is determined using only one cost classification.
How many statements are true?
A. All statements are true
B. Only 2 statements are true
C. Only one statement is true
D. No statements are true
5. What is the height of Mechazilla, SpaceX’s rocket-catching structure?
A. 200 ft
B. 300 ft
C. 400 ft
D. 500 ft
MCQ CHALLENGE FOR KAS PRELIMS – DAY 26
1. Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for establishing, managing, and terminating connections between applications?
A. Physical Layer
B. Data Link Layer
C. Transport Layer
D. Session Layer
2. What is the main function of the Network Layer in the OSI model?
A. Error detection
B. Routing of data packets
C. Data encryption
D. Flow control
3. In TCP/IP, which protocol is used for error reporting and network diagnostics?
A. UDP
B. HTTP
C. ICMP
D. FTP
4. Which of the following is a connection-oriented protocol?
A. UDP
B. TCP
C. IP
D. ICMP
5. What is the maximum size of an IPv4 header?
A. 20 bytes
B. 40 bytes
C. 60 bytes
D. 80 bytes
6. Which topology uses a central hub to connect multiple devices in a network?
A. Bus topology
B. Ring topology
C. Star topology
D. Mesh topology
7. What is the default subnet mask for a Class C IP address?
A. 255.0.0.0
B. 255.255.0.0
C. 255.255.255.0
D. 255.255.255.255
8. Which protocol is primarily used to transfer web pages over the Internet?
A. FTP
B. SMTP
C. HTTP
D. SNMP
9. Which switching technique involves the entire data packet being stored before being forwarded?
A. Circuit switching
B. Message switching
C. Packet switching
D. Store-and-forward switching
10. In a peer-to-peer network, what is the role of the devices connected?
A. One device acts as a server, and others are clients
B. All devices are equal and share resources
C. Only one device controls the entire network
D. Devices must request permissions from a central authority
16 OCTBER 2024
1. Consider the following statements:
1. Cauvery Stage V Project supplies water to 110 villages added to BBMP
2. Cauvery Stage V Project draws 775 MLD from Cauvery River
3. Cauvery Stage V Project will have only one advanced booster pumping stations at T.K. Halli
How many statements are true?
A. All statements are true
B. Only 2 statements are true
C. Only one statement is true
D. No statements are true
2. What phenomenon do Darwin’s Finches exemplify?
A. Convergent Evolution
B. Adaptive Radiation
C. Natural Selection
D. Genetic Drift
3. Consider the following statements:
1. INS Samarthak is first indigenously designed multi-purpose vessel
2. INS Samarthak length is 106 meters
3. INS Samarthak is Part of a two-vessel project built by L&T Shipyard at Kattupalli
How many statements are true?
A. All statements are true
B. Only 2 statements are true
C. Only one statement is true
D. No statements are true
4. Which of the following statements are true:
1. 149th Assembly of the Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU) was held in Geneva
2. IPU moved its headquarters to Geneva in 1921
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1&2
D. None of the above
5. Where was India’s first Demonstration Facility for Biopolymers inaugurated?
A. Delhi
B. Bengaluru
C. Hyderabad
D. Pune
MCQ CHALLENGE FOR KAS PRELIMS – DAY 25
1. Which of the following is NOT a component of the MS Office Suite?
a) MS Word
b) MS Excel
c) MS PowerPoint
d) MS Photoshop
2. Which MS Office application is primarily used for data analysis and calculations?
a) MS Word
b) MS Excel
c) MS PowerPoint
d) MS Outlook
3. What is the default file extension for an MS Word document in Office 2016 and later versions?
a) .doc
b) .docx
c) .txt
d) .pdf
4. Which of the following features is used in MS PowerPoint to apply movement to slides?
a) Animations
b) Transitions
c) Slide Show
d) Layout
5. In MS Excel, which function is used to calculate the average of a range of cells?
a) SUM
b) AVERAGE
c) COUNT
d) MIN
6. What is the purpose of the “Mail Merge” feature in MS Word?
a) To send emails from Word
b) To combine multiple documents
c) To create personalized letters, labels, or envelopes
d) To merge formatting from different templates
7. Which MS Office application is primarily used for managing emails?
a) MS Word
b) MS Excel
c) MS PowerPoint
d) MS Outlook
8. In MS Excel, which symbol is used to begin a formula?
a) =
b) +
c) (
d) /
9. Which of the following is a valid file extension for an MS PowerPoint presentation?
a) .pptx
b) .xlsx
c) .docx
d) .mdb
10. Which feature in MS Word is used to track changes made to a document?
a) Spelling & Grammar
b) Track Changes
c) Word Count
d) Document Inspector
15 OCTBER 2024
1. Consider the following statements:
1. Rooftop Aero Turbine is a small-scale wind energy plant
2. Rooftop Aero Turbine can be installed on building rooftops
3. Rooftop Aero Turbine is always installed without solar panels
How many statements are true?
A. All statements are true
B. Only 2 statements are true
C. Only one statement is true
D. No statements are true
2. Which of the following statements are true:
1. Capacity of Pavagada Solar Park 2 MW solar photovoltaic (PV) plant
2. Karnataka’s Solar Capacity: 8,904.14 MW
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1&2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
3. Which of the following statements are true:
1. The target renewable energy installed capacity by 2030 according to the National Electricity Plan is 50 GW
2. Central Electricity Authority (CEA) prepared the National Electricity Plan
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1&2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
4. What is the primary objective of the Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF)?
A. To bridge the gap between academic research and industrial application
B. To promote industrial growth
C. To support only government-funded research
D. To focus solely on environmental research
5. Which of the following statement is/are true?
1. Daron Acemoglu and James A. Robinson are affiliated with the Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT).
2. The Nobel Memorial Prize in Economic Sciences was established in 1968 by Sweden’s central bank.
3. The Nobel Memorial Prize in Economics is presented along with other Nobel Prizes on Alfred Nobel’s birth anniversary.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. None
MCQ CHALLENGE FOR KAS PRELIMS – DAY 24
1. Which of the following is the core component of an operating system?
a) Shell
b) Kernel
c) Command Interpreter
d) Device Driver
2. Which scheduling algorithm assigns the CPU to the process with the shortest expected processing time?
a) First-Come, First-Served (FCFS)
b) Round Robin
c) Shortest Job Next (SJN)
d) Priority Scheduling
3. Which memory management technique is also known as “Swapping”?
a) Paging
b) Segmentation
c) Virtual Memory
d) Contiguous Allocation
4. Which operating system is an example of a single-user, multitasking operating system?
a) MS-DOS
b) Windows 10
c) UNIX
d) Linux
5. Which of the following is used for inter-process communication (IPC)?
a) Pipelining
b) Semaphore
c) Multi-threading
d) Fragmentation
6. Which of the following is a disk scheduling algorithm?
a) FCFS
b) SSTF
c) SCAN
d) All of the above
7. What is the primary purpose of the “spooling” process in operating systems?
a) Disk management
b) CPU scheduling
c) Handling I/O device management
d) Memory management
8. In UNIX, which command is used to display currently running processes?
a) ls
b) pwd
c) ps
d) chmod
9. Which type of operating system allows multiple users to access a computer system at the same time?
a) Real-time OS
b) Distributed OS
c) Time-sharing OS
d) Embedded OS
10. Which of the following is an open-source operating system?
a) macOS
b) Windows
c) Linux
d) DOS
14 OCTBER 2024
1. Which state recorded the highest number of child marriage cases in the NCPCR study for 2022?
A. Assam
B. West Bengal
C. Karnataka
D. Tamil Nadu
2. Consider the following statements:
1. X-band radars are used for enhanced disaster warnings
2. Doppler radar tracks cloud movement and intensity via the Doppler effect
3. Pulse-Doppler radar measures rainfall intensity by emitting pulses
How many statements are true?
A. All statements are true
B. Only 2 statements are true
C. Only one statement is true
D. No statements are true
3. Consider the following statements:
1. Murine Typhus is caused by the flea-borne bacteria
2. There are many vaccines for Murine Typhus
3. Murine Typhus is commonly found in coastal tropical and subtropical regions
How many statements are true?
A. All statements are true
B. Only 2 statements are true
C. Only one statement is true
D. No statements are true
4. Which of the following statements are true?
1. T-90 Bhishma has been the main battle tank of the Indian Army since 2003
2. T-90 Bhishma weighs 47 tonnes
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1&2
D. None of the above
5. What does Nihon Hidankyo primarily advocate for?
A. Economic growth
B. Nuclear weapon elimination
C. Climate change action
D. Global trade agreements
6. Who won the Shanghai Masters by defeating Novak Djokovic?
A. Rafael Nadal
B. Jannik Sinner
C. Daniil Medvedev
D. Alexander Zverev
7. What record did Ruth Chepngetich set during the Chicago Marathon?
A. Fastest marathon time for a woman
B. Most consecutive marathon wins
C. Fastest marathon time for a debutant
D. Fastest marathon in a costume
8.What is the purpose of the one-man commission headed by Justice Shameem Akhtar in Telangana?
A. To review the criminal justice system
B. To implement the sub-categorisation of Scheduled Castes
C. To oversee election reforms
D. To assess educational policies
9. What percentage of India’s population consumes rice as a staple?
A. 50%
B. 65%
C. 75%
D. 80%
10. Which country’s athlete won the gold medal at the Asian Equestrian Federation Cup in Bengaluru?
A. India
B. Pakistan
C. Iran
D. Japan
MCQ CHALLENGE FOR KAS PRELIMS – DAY 23
1. Which of the following is the brain of the computer?
a) Keyboard
b) Central Processing Unit (CPU)
c) Mouse
d) Monitor
2. Which part of the computer is used for long-term data storage?
a) RAM
b) CPU
c) Hard Drive
d) ROM
3. Which of the following is an example of an input device?
a) Monitor
b) Printer
c) Keyboard
d) Speaker
4. Which of the following is a volatile memory?
a) Hard Disk
b) ROM
c) RAM
d) SSD
5. What does GUI stand for in computing?
a) Graphical Utility Interface
b) Graphical User Interface
c) General User Interface
d) Global Utility Interface
6. What does ROM stand for?
a) Read-Only Memory
b) Random Only Memory
c) Read Output Memory
d) Random Output Memory
7. Which unit is responsible for arithmetic and logical operations in a computer?
a) Control Unit
b) Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU)
c) Memory Unit
d) Input Unit
8. Which of the following is an example of system software?
a) MS Word
b) Windows Operating System
c) Photoshop
d) Tally
9. Which type of computer language is directly understood by the computer?
a) Assembly Language
b) High-level Language
c) Machine Language
d) Procedural Language
10. What is the primary function of an operating system?
a) Word processing
b) Manage computer hardware and software resources
c) Perform arithmetic operations
d) Manage network connections
MCQ CHALLENGE FOR KAS PRELIMS – CSAT
- Pointing to a man, Shyam said, “He is the brother of my mother’s only son.” How is the man related to Shyam?
a) Uncle
b) Father
c) Cousin
d) Brother
- If A is the brother of B, B is the sister of C, and C is the father of D, how is A related to D?
a) Uncle
b) Brother
c) Father
d) Grandfather
- Pointing to a photograph, Lata says, “He is the son of the only son of my grandfather.” How is the man in the photograph related to Lata?
a) Brother
b) Cousin
c) Father
d) Uncle
- Pointing to a man in a photograph, Sita said, “His mother’s only daughter is my mother.” How is the man related to Sita?
a) Uncle
b) Brother
c) Cousin
d) Nephew
- A is B’s sister, C is B’s mother, D is C’s father, and E is D’s mother. How is A related to D?
a) Granddaughter
b) Daughter
c) Sister
d) Niece
- If X is the brother of Y, Y is the sister of Z, and Z is the father of W, how is X related to W?
a) Uncle
b) Brother
c) Father
d) Cousin
- Introducing a boy, a girl said, “He is the son of my mother’s brother.” How is the boy related to the girl?
a) Brother
b) Cousin
c) Nephew
d) Uncle.
- Pointing to a photograph, Neha said, “She is the mother of my father’s only grandson.” How is the woman in the photograph related to Neha?
a) Mother
b) Sister
c) Aunt
d) Cousin
- If A says, “B’s father is my father’s only son,” how is A related to B?
a) Uncle
b) Father
c) Cousin
d) Brother
- If P is the mother of Q and R is the son of P, how is Q related to R?
a) Mother
b) Brother
c) Sister
d) Cousin
MCQ CHALLENGE FOR KAS PRELIMS – DAY 22
1. Which of the following statements are true?
1. Negative Income Tax is a taxation scheme that provides income subsidies to people and families who fall below the poverty threshold
2. Laffer Curve is based on the principle that increasing tax rates boost economic growth
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1&2
D. Neither 1nor2
2. Consider the following statements:
1. Taxation refers to levy on individuals or companies by the governments
2. Government’s right to levy taxes is derived from the Indian Constitution
3. Every tax imposed within the country must be accompanied by an accompaniment law passed by the State Legislature or the Parliament
A. Only one statement is true
B. All statements are true
C. No statement is true
D. Only two statements are true
3. Which of the following statements are true?
1. A direct tax is one that is levied directly on the taxpayer and paid directly to the government
2. Central Board of Direct Taxes is responsible for levying and collecting direct taxes
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1&2
D. Neither 1nor2
4. Which of the following is an example of a progressive tax?
A. Flat Sales Tax
B. Value Added Tax (VAT)
C. Custom Duty
D. Luxury Sales Tax
5. Which of the following are Similarities Between Cess and Surcharge :
1. levied by the state government
2. collected and deposited in India’s Consolidated Fund
3. cannot be shared by state governments.
A. Only one statement is true
B. All statements are true
C. No statement is true
D. Only two statements are true
6. How does GST mitigate cascading effects?
A. By increasing double taxation
B. By reducing double taxation
C. By imposing additional taxes
D. By eliminating input taxes
7. What is the primary difference between tax evasion and tax avoidance?
A. Tax evasion is legal, while tax avoidance is illegal.
B. Tax evasion involves loopholes, while tax avoidance involves non-payment.
C. Tax evasion is illegal, while tax avoidance involves loopholes.
D. Tax evasion is intentional, while tax avoidance is unintentional.
8. Which of the following statements are true?
1. Value Added Tax was in effect until July 1, 2017 in India
2. Value Added Tax has now been replaced by SGST
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1&2
D. Neither 1nor2
9. When was Gift Tax first introduced in India?
A. 1950
B. 1958
C. 1968
D. 1978
10. Which of the following statements are true?
1. Commodities Transaction Tax was introduced in the 2013-14
2. Fundamental goal of the Commodities Transaction Tax was to distinguish between derivative trading
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1&2
D. Neither 1nor2
MCQ CHALLENGE FOR KAS PRELIMS – DAY 21
1. Consider the following statements:
1. Balanced Budget: Revenues = Expenditure
2. Surplus Budget: Revenues > Expenditure
3. Deficit Budget: Revenues < Expenditure
A. Only one statement is true
B. All statements are true
C. No statement is true
D. Only two statements are true
2. What are the negative consequences of a budgetary deficit:
1. Fall of Interest rates
2. Raises the rate of inflation
3. Government’s burden of increasing interest payments grows
A. Only one statement is true
B. All statements are true
C. No statement is true
D. Only two statements are true
3. Which of the following statements is true regarding fiscal consolidation?
A. It primarily focuses on increasing public debt.
B. It involves reducing the size of the government workforce.
C. It aims to improve the financial health of the government.
D. It is unrelated to economic growth
4. Which of the following statements are true?
1. The Eleventh Finance Commission (EFC) 2000 created a Fiscal Reform Facility.
2. The Twelfth Finance Commission (TWFC) laid down a debt write-off scheme for better fiscal governance
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1&2
D. Neither 1nor2
5. Consider the following statements:
1. Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act mandates Central fiscal deficit reduction to 3% of GDP
2. Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act mandates Revenue deficit reduction by 0.5% or more of GDP annually
3. Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act mandates States’ fiscal deficit reduction to 3% of GSDP
A. Only one statement is true
B. All statements are true
C. No statement is true
D. Only two statements are true
6. Revenue expenses include_____:
(1) Wages and salaries for employees
(2) Research and development
(3) Rentals and utilities
(4) Traveling for work
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
7. What is one of the primary objectives of the budget?
A. Reallocation of resources
B. Increasing public debt
C. Reducing the government workforce
D. Limiting foreign investments
8. Which of the following statements are true?
1. Revenue Budget is Statement of government’s anticipated revenue receipts and expenditures
2. Revenue Budget does not cover recurring, non-redeemable revenue items
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1&2
D. Neither 1nor2
9. Which of the following is/are included in the Indian government’s capital budget?
1. Payments on the acquisition of assets such as roads, buildings, and machinery.
2. Loans from other country’s governments.
3. State governments and union territories receive loans and advances.
A. Only (1)
B. Only (2) and (3)
C. Only (1) and (3)
D. All of the three
10. Which of the following is NOT included in capital expenditure?
A. Purchase of land
B. Construction of buildings
C. Salaries of employees
D. Acquisition of machinery
10-11 OCTBER 2024
1. What technology is used in Bengaluru’s Adaptive Traffic Control System (BATCS)?
A. Fixed-timing signals
B. Camera sensors and adaptive signals
C. Vehicle Actuated Control (VAC) only
D. Manual signaling
2. Consider the following statements:
1. INS Nirdeshak is built by Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers (GRSE)
2. INS Nirdeshak is built using Integrated Construction technology
3. INS Nirdeshak is capable of achieving speeds in excess of 18 knots.
How many statements are true?
A. All statements are true
B. Only 2 statements are true
C. Only one statement is true
D. No statements are true
3. Consider the following statements:
1. National Maritime Heritage Complex (NMHC) is located at Lothal, Rajasthan
2. National Maritime Heritage Complex (NMHC) is poised to become the world’s largest maritime museum complex
3. National Maritime Heritage Complex (NMHC) is spearheaded by the Ministry of culture
How many statements are true?
A. All statements are true
B. Only 2 statements are true
C. Only one statement is true
D. No statements are true
4. Consider the following statements:
1. 2024 Nobel Prize in Chemistry was awarded to David Baker, Demis Hassabis, and John M Jumper
2. 2024 Nobel Prize in Chemistry was awarded to protein design and protein structure prediction
3. David Baker’s work with DeepMind’s AlphaFold model revolutionized protein structure prediction
How many statements are true?
A. All statements are true
B. No statements are true
C. Only one statement is true
D. Only 2 statements are true
5. Who won the 2024 Nobel Prize in Literature?
A. Jon Olav Fosse
B. Han Kang
C. Haruki Murakami
D. Gabriel García Márquez
6. What is the primary purpose of the ESA tag for the Western Ghats?
A. Promote industrial growth
B. Balance economic development and environmental protection
C. Restrict all human activities
D. Increase tourism
7. What percentage of Nobel laureates are women?
A. Less than 5%
B. Less than 15%
C. More than 20%
D. Equal to men
8. When was ASEAN formed?
A. 1947
B. 1957
C. 1967
D. 1977
9. Where was the new species of damselfly, Agasthyamalai Bambootail, discovered?
A. Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala
B. Bengaluru, Karnataka
C. Mumbai, Maharashtra
D. New Delhi
10. Which countries are participating in the MALABAR exercise?
A. India, US
B. India, US, Japan
C. India, US, Japan, Australia
D. India, China
MCQ CHALLENGE FOR KAS PRELIMS – DAY 20
1. Human capital formation as a concept is better explained in terms of a process, which enables __
1) individuals of a country to accumulate more capital.
2) increasing the knowledge, skill levels and capacities of the people of the country.
3) accumulation of tangible wealth.
4) accumulation of intangible wealth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 3 and 4
2. Consider the following statements are true:
1. Commodity taxation can also be used to boost the rate of savings
2. High sales tax on luxury goods reduces consumption
3. Savings will naturally increase if income remains constant
A. Only one statement is true
B. All statements are true
C. No statement is true
D. Only two statements are true
3. Which of the following statements are true?
1. Gross Capital Formation (GCF) refers to Net investment after depreciation
2. Net Capital Formation (NCF) refers to Total investment before depreciation
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1&2
D. Neither 1nor2
4. Consider the following statements are true:
1. Saving is the practice of reserving a portion of one’s current income for future use
2. Net Savings are generated when disposable personal income exceeds personal expenditure
3. Gross Savings include net savings as well as depreciation allowances for future replacement of real assets
A. Only one statement is true
B. All statements are true
C. No statement is true
D. Only two statements are true
5. In an open economy, the national income (Y) of the economy is: (C, I, G, X, M stand for Consumption, Investment, Govt. Expenditure, total exports and total imports respectively.)
A. Y = C + I + G + X
B. Y = I + G –X + M
C. Y = C + I + G + (X – M)
D. Y = C – G + I + (X – M)
6. Which of the following statements are true?
1. Public Investment Model – Government-funded investment in goods and services.
2. Private Investment Model – government participation in private sector ventures through domestic or foreign investment
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1&2
D. Neither 1nor2
7. How do reduced interest rates affect investment spending in the economy?
A. Investment spending decreases as interest rates fall.
B. Investment spending remains unchanged.
C. Investment spending increases due to easier access to capital.
D. There is no relationship between interest rates and investment spending.
8. What term is used to describe the process of banks taking deposits and lending those funds to borrowers?
A. Financial management
B. Financial intermediation
C. Asset allocation
D. Risk assessment
9. Why can allocating natural resources lead to conflict?
A. They are always abundant
B. They are easily replaceable
C. Growing shortages and scarcities can lead to economic and political conflict
D. They have no economic value
10. Which of the following statements are true?
1. Incremental capital-output ratio (ICOR) describes the relationship between the amount of investment made in the economy and the resulting increase in GDP.
2. Lower Incremental capital-output ratio (ICOR) is preferred because it indicate that a country’s production is more efficient
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1&2
D. Neither 1nor2
9 OCTBER 2024
1. Consider the following statements:
1. Bruhat Bengaluru Mahanagara Palike (BBMP) has launched a pilot project, ‘SaveMom’
2. SaveMom uses artificial intelligence to provide continuous care for pregnant women, lactating mothers, and infants
3. SaveMom covers a comprehensive 1,00 -day monitoring period
How many statements are true?
A. All statements are true
B. Only 2 statements are true
C. Only one statement is true
D. No statements are true
2. Consider the following statements:
1. 10th Wild Ass Population Estimation (WAPE) is conducted in 2024
2. Wild asses are listed as an “critically endangered species” by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)
3. Wild asses are protected under Schedule 2 of the Wildlife Protection Act in India
How many statements are true?
A. All statements are true
B. Only 2 statements are true
C. Only one statement is true
D. No statements are true
3. By what year does the Global Framework on Chemicals aim to phase out highly hazardous pesticides in agriculture?
A. 2025
B. 2030
C. 2035
D. 2040
4. Which of the following statements are true?
1. WHO recommends the SAFE strategy for elimination of trachoma
2. Trachoma is a viral infection
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1&2
D. None of the above
5. What is Geoffrey Hinton commonly known as?
A. The father of machine learning
B. The godfather of AI
C. The founder of deep learning
D. The pioneer of neural networks
MCQ CHALLENGE FOR KAS PRELIMS – DAY 19
1. Which of the following are Objectives of Economic Planning?
1. Generating economic growth necessitates
2. Increase in employment
3. Ensuring social justice and equality
A. Only one statement is true
B. All statements are true
C. No statement is true
D. Only two statements are true
2. Who was the first chairman of the Planning Commission of India?
A. Jawaharlal Nehru
B. Indira Gandhi
C. Mahatma Gandhi
D. Subhash Chandra Bose
3. Consider the following statements:
1. India and developing countries calculate revenue on a factor cost basis
2. National Income is calculated using constant prices
3. Economic development includes only development
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 3 only
4. Which of the following statements are true?
1. The concept of five-year plans started in the Soviet Union
2. P. C. Mahanobolis is considered architect of Indian planning
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1&2
D. Neither 1nor2
5. Match the Following:
A. 1-A, 2-B, 3-D, 4-C
B. 1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D
C. 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
D. 1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D
6. Inclusive growth as enunciated in the Eleventh Five Year Plan does not include one of the following:
A. Reduction of poverty
B. Extension of employment opportunities
C. Strengthening of capital market
D. Reduction of gender inequality
7. Consider the following statements are true regarding First Five Year Plan:
1. It was launched for the duration of 1952 to 1958
2. It was based on the Harrod-Domar model
3. Its main focus was on the agricultural development
A. Only one statement is true
B. All statements are true
C. No statement is true
D. Only two statements are true
8. Who is the current CEO of NITI Aayog?
A. B.V.R. Subrahmanyam
B. Amitabh Kant
C. Rajiv Kumar
D. Arvind Panagariya
9. What were the main focus areas of the Fifth Five-Year Plan?
A. Industrialization, urbanization, and infrastructure development
B. Garibi Hatao, employment, justice, agricultural production, and defence
C. Education, healthcare, and environmental sustainability
D. Foreign policy, national security, and international trade
10. Who prepared the Eleventh Five-Year Plan of India?
A. Montek Singh Ahluwalia
B. C. Rangarajan
C. P. Chidambaram
D. Raghuram Rajan
8 OCTBER 2024
1. Consider the following statements:
1. Greater Hesaraghatta Conservation Reserve (GHCR), which encompasses 5,010 acres of land
2. Karnataka State Board for Wildlife (SBWL) is led by the Karnataka Forest Minister
3. A conservation reserve is a protected area aimed at preserving biodiversity while allowing traditional rights and community practices
How many statements are true?
A. All statements are true
B. Only 2 statements are true
C. Only one statement is true
D. No statements are true
2. Consider the following statements:
1. Ni-Kshay Poshan Yojana was launched in 2018
2. Monthly nutrition support for TB patients under Ni-Kshay Poshan Yojana is ₹1,000
3. Household contacts of TB patients are now covered under the Pradhan Mantri TB Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan
How many statements are true?
A. All statements are true
B. Only 2 statements are true
C. Only one statement is true
D. No statements are true
3. Consider the following statements:
1. India and the Maldives have signed a $750 million currency swap agreement
2. RuPay card is not in use in the Maldives
3. Hanimadhoo Island is in Sri Lanka
How many statements are true?
A. All statements are true
B. Only 2 statements are true
C. Only one statement is true
D. No statements are true
4. Victor Ambros and Gary Ruvkun were awarded the 2024 Nobel Prize for Medicine for discovering:
A. DNA sequencing
B. CRISPR technology
C. Stem cell therapy
D. MicroRNA
5. What is Progeria (Hutchinson-Gilford Progeria Syndrome)?
A. A disorder causing rapid aging in adults
B. A rare genetic disorder causing rapid aging in children
C. A type of cancer affecting bones
D. A heart disease
MCQ CHALLENGE FOR KAS PRELIMS – DAY 18
1. Y = C + I + G + (X – M) is the equation to calculate National income. In this regard consider the following statements:
1. Y = National income
2. X = Net exports
3. I = Private investment
A. Only one statement is true
B. All statements are true
C. No statement is true
D. Only two statements are true
2. According to Marshall, what is national income?
A. Gross aggregate of commodities
B. Net aggregate of commodities
C. Total revenue of the government
D. Total expenditure of citizens
3. What does the word ‘net’ refer to in Marshall’s definition of National Income?
A. Addition of income from abroad
B. Deductions for depreciation and wearing out of machines
C. Total income earned by citizens
D. Gross national income
4. Which of the following statements are true?
1. Primary sector refers to that sector of the economy which exploits natural resources to produce goods
2. The manufacturing sector of the economy which transforms one physical good into another is included in the secondary sector
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1&2
D. Neither 1nor2
5. Consider the following statements:
1. Government switched to a new base year of 2011-12 for national accounts in January 2013
2. GDP at market price = GDP at factor cost + Indirect Taxes – Subsidies
3. Central Statistics Office (CSO) uses GDP at factor cost
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 3 only
6. The most appropriate measure of economic growth is its:
A. Per Capita Real Income
B. Net Domestic Product
C. Net National Product
D. Gross Domestic Product of a country’s
7. What does Gross National Product (GNP) measure?
A. Economic activity within a country’s borders only
B. Total global economic activity
C. Government revenue and expenditure
D. Economic contributions of a nation’s residents both domestically and abroad
8.Match the Following: National Income Calculation Approaches
Approaches – Descriptions
1. Production Approach – a) Sum of earnings, production and import taxes, minus subsidies
2. Expenditure Approach – b) Sum of final expenditures, exports, minus imports, plus wealth addition
3. Income Approach – c) Sum of goods and services production, plus taxes, minus product subsidies
Match the approaches with their descriptions
A. 1-c, 2-b, 3-a
B. 1-b, 2-c, 3-a
C. 1-a, 2-b, 3-c
D. 1-c, 2-a, 3-b
9. A decrease in the tax-to-GDP ratio of a country indicates which of the following?
1) Slowing economic growth rate
2) Less equitable distribution of national income
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
10. What does the GDP Deflator measure?
A. Changes in prices of imported goods
B. Changes in prices of exported goods
C. Average changes in prices of goods and services produced within an economy
D. Changes in interest rates
7 OCTBER 2024
1. Consider the following statements:
1. Satish Kumar is the current Chairman and Chief Executive Officer of the Railway Board
2. The cap on the intake of officers through the IRMS is currently removed
3. Prakash Tandon Committee on railways was appointed on 1994
How many statements are true?
A. All statements are true
B. Only 2 statements are true
C. Only one statement is true
D. No statements are true
2. Consider the following statements:
1. EnviStats India 2024 is the 7th edition
2. EnviStats India 2024 was released by Ministry of environment
How many statements are true?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1&2
D. None of the above
3. Consider the following statements:
1. GRAMA project aims to enhance crop planning and agri-input procurement
2. GRAMA project is supported by NABARD
How many statements are true?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1&2
D. None of the above
4. Consider the following statements:
1. Global Strategic Preparedness, Readiness, and Response Plan (SPRP) was launched by WHO
2. Global Strategic Preparedness, Readiness, and Response Plan (SPRP) was launched to combat dengue
How many statements are true?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1&2
D. None of the above
5. Which company developed the Akashteer air defence systems?
A. Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL)
B. Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL)
C. Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
D. Tata Advanced Systems
MCQ CHALLENGE FOR KAS PRELIMS – DAY 17
1. Consider the following statements:
1. Gross domestic product (GDP) is the total market value of all finished goods and services produced in a country
2. Sharp decreases in employment indicate prosperous economic growth
3. Consumer Price Index (CPI) measures the level of retail price changes
A. Only one statement is true
B. All statements are true
C. No statement is true
D. Only two statements are true
2. Which of the following statements are true?
1. Capitalism is an economic system characterized by Individuals and businesses own and control resources.
2. Socialism is an economic and social system characterized by Collective ownership
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1&2
D. Neither 1nor2
3. Consider the following statements:
1. Appreciation – A rise in the value of an asset.
2. Arbitrage – Buying an asset in one market and simultaneously selling an identical asset in another market at a higher price.
3. Assets – The total of all the money coming into a country from abroad less all of the money going out of the country during the same period.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 3 only
4. What is collateral in the context of loans?
A. A loan given to a borrower without any conditions
B. A penalty imposed for late repayment of a loan
C. An asset pledged by a borrower that may be seized by a lender if the borrower fails to repay the loan
D. A document that outlines the terms and conditions of a loan
5. Which of the following statements are true?
1. Phillips curve was proposed by economist from New Zealand, A.W.H. Phillips
2. Phillips curve proposed that there was a trade-off between inflation and unemployment
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1&2
D. Neither 1nor2
6. Which of the following statements are true regarding Frictional unemployment?
1. It is part of the jobless total caused by people simply changing jobs
2. It is not caused due to spending time on job search
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1&2
D. Neither 1nor2
7.Which of the following is NOT considered a factor of production?
A. Land
B. Labour
C. Laws
D. Capital
8. Which of the following best describes elasticity in economics?
A. A measure of how two unrelated goods affect each other.
B. A measure of the responsiveness of one variable to changes in another.
C. A measure of how much supply increases when demand increases.
D. A measure of the quality of goods over time.
9. What does income elasticity of demand measure?
A. How the quantity demanded of a good changes when the price changes.
B. How the price of a good changes when consumer preferences change.
C. How the quantity demanded of a good changes when income increases.
D. How the supply of a good changes when government policies change.
10. The characteristic of public goods that implies people cannot choose not to consume them is called:
A. Non-rival
B. Non-excludable
C. Non-rejectable
D. Non-refundable
4-5 OCTBER 2024
1. Consider the following statements:
1. Prakrit is recognized as classical language
2. In 2024 five languages received classical language status
3. Tamil is the first language to get classical language status
How many statements are true?
A. All statements are true
B. Only 2 statements are true
C. Only one statement is true
D. No statements are true
2. Which of the following statements are true:
1. Incentive Scheme for Domestic Production of Oilseeds, aimed at boosting oilseed cultivation and reducing independence on edible oil imports
2. Productivity-Linked Reward (PLR) Scheme is based on performance-based rewards over the 2020-26 period
How many statements are true?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1&2
D. None of the above
3. Which of the following statements are true:
1. PM Internship Scheme targets one crore youth over five years
2. PM Internship Scheme include a monthly stipend of ₹4,500 via DBT
How many statements are true?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1&2
D. None of the above
4. Which of the following statements are true:
1. India is participating in the International Energy Efficiency Hub (Hub)
2. International Energy Efficiency Hub (Hub) was established in 2020
How many statements are NOT true?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1&2
D. None of the above
5. When was the Swachh Bharat Mission-Urban 2.0 (SBM-U 2.0) launched?
A. January 2020
B. October 2021
C. March 2022
D. July 2021
2-3 OCTBER 2024
1. Consider the following statements:
1. There are 45 blood rare group systems identified till now
2. Bombay (Oh) phenotype, Rh-D-/-D-, In(a+b-), Co(a-b-), CdE/CdE, Mg are examples of Rare Blood Groups
3. Karnataka government launches rare blood donor programme
How many statements are true?
A. All statements are true
B. Only 2 statements are true
C. Only one statement is true
D. No statements are true
2. Consider the following statements:
1. Mission Amrit is continuation of the Swachh Bharat Abhiyan
2. Swachh Bharat Mission has significantly impacted public health, with the World Health Organisation
3. India has seen the emergence of around 5,000 clean-tech start-ups in recent years
How many statements are true?
A. All statements are true
B. Only 2 statements are true
C. Only one statement is true
D. No statements are true
3. Consider the following statements:
1. Maibra Jou Bidwi is a welcome drink made from half-cooked fermented rice
2. Bodo Ondla is a traditional rice-based beverage
3. Bodo Jou Gishi is rice powder curry with spices
How many statements are true?
A. All statements are true
B. Only 2 statements are true
C. Only one statement is true
D. No statements are true
4. Which company was appointed as the system integrator for the FCI’s digital transformation project, Anna DARPAN?
A. Infosys
B. Wipro
C. Coforge Limited
D. TCS
5. What is the main goal of the BharatGen initiative launched by the Union Ministry of Science & Technology?
A. Develop satellite technology
B. Create generative AI systems in Indian languages
C. Promote space exploration
D. Enhance agricultural productivity
6. What is the primary focus of the Dharti Aaba Janjatiya Gram Utkarsh Abhiyan?
A. Basic scheme saturation in urban areas
B. Tribal-majority villages
C. Education for children
D. Infrastructure development
7.Which telescope is recognized as the world’s largest and most sensitive radio telescope?
A. Arecibo Observatory
B. Green Bank Telescope
C. Five-Hundred Aperture Spherical Telescope (FAST)
D. Very Large Array
8. Who is the first woman officer to become the Director-General of the Armed Forces Medical Services?
A. Surgeon General Arti Sarin
B. Surgeon Vice-Admiral Arti Sarin
C. Admiral Arti Sarin
D. Major General Arti Sarin
9.Which three new members were appointed to the RBI’s monetary policy committee?
A. Ram Singh, Saugata Bhattacharya, Nagesh Kumar
B. Nagesh Kumar, Ram Singh, K. V. Kamath
C. Ram Singh, Saugata Bhattacharya, Raghuram Rajan
D. Saugata Bhattacharya, Raghuram Rajan, K. V. Kamath
10. When is the Venus Orbiter Mission (VOM) scheduled to launch?
A. March 29, 2028
B. July 19, 2028
C. September 18, 2024
D. June 30, 2028
MCQ CHALLENGE FOR KAS PRELIMS – DAY 16 – COMMITTEES
1. Which committee was formed to assess public-private partnerships (PPP) in India?
a) Suresh Tendulkar Committee
b) Kelkar Committee
c) Sarkaria Commission
d) JJ Irani Committee
2.What was the focus of the Abhijeet Sen Committee?
a) Small scale industries
b) Disinvestment
c) Formulating long-term food policy
d) Monetary policy
3. The JJ Irani Committee was responsible for the reforms in:
a) Banking laws
b) Company laws
c) Tax structure
d) Educational policy
4.The G V Ramakrishna Committee is associated with:
a) Disinvestment
b) Tax reforms
c) Venture capital
d) Motor Vehicle Tax
5. Which committee was involved in studying agricultural credit in India?
a) Dharia Committee
b) Khusro Committee
c) C Rao Committee
d) Athreya Committee
6. The Shivaraman Committee (1979) led to the establishment of which institution?
a) NABARD
b) SEBI
c) CBI
d) RBI
7.Which committee is associated with capital account convertibility in India?
a) Tarapore Committee
b) Bhagwati Committee
c) Lodha Committee
d) Kothari Commission
8.The Punchhi Commission is related to reforms in:
a) Centre-State relations
b) Panchayati Raj Institutions
c) Banking Sector
d) Corporate Governance
9. Which committee was responsible for the establishment of the University Grants Commission (UGC)?
a) Kothari Commission
b) Radha Krishnan Commission
c) Santhanam Committee
d) Bhurelal Committee
10. The Vaghul Committee focused on reforms in:
a) Agricultural credit
b) Money markets in India
c) Disinvestment
d) Tax reforms
1 OCTBER 2024
1. Consider the following statements:
1. Idagunji Mahaganapati Yakshagana Mela troupe was established by Keremane Shivarama Hegde
2. Idagunji Mahaganapati Yakshagana Mela troupe was established in 1934
3. Idagunji Mahaganapati Yakshagana Mela troupe is honored during the UNESCO Convention for Safeguarding Intangible Cultural Heritage.
How many statements are true?
A. All statements are true
B. Only 2 statements are true
C. Only one statement is true
D. No statements are true
2. Consider the following statements:
1. India is world’s third-largest producer of ethanol
2. India is world’s third-largest consumer of ethanol
3. India is largest producer of ethanol
How many statements are true?
A. All statements are true
B. Only 2 statements are true
C. Only one statement is true
D. No statements are true
3. Which of the following statements are true?
1. Dadasaheb Phalke Award was instituted in 1969
2. First recipient of Dadasaheb Phalke Award was Devika Rani Roerich
A. 1 ONLY
B. 2 ONLY
C. Both 1&2
D. Neither 1nor2
4. Which team did India defeat to retain the title in the SAFF U17 championship 2024?
A. Nepal
B. Bhutan
C. Bangladesh
D. Sri Lanka
5. What are the names of the two new species of torrent minnows discovered in Nagaland?
A. Garra zubzaensis and Psilorhynchus kosygini
B. Garra kosygini and Psilorhynchus zubzaensis
C. Garra nagalandensis and Psilorhynchus nagalandensis
D. Garra varshaabhu and Psilorhynchus Bengaluru
MCQ CHALLENGE FOR KAS PRELIMS – DAY 15- PERSONS IN NEWS
1. Who was the first ever footballer to win the FIFA World Cup trophy as both player and coach?
a) Zinedine Zidane
b) Franz Beckenbauer
c) Mario Zagallo
d) Johan Cruyff
2.Who has been sworn in as the first woman Chief Justice of the Uttarakhand High Court?
a) Justice Indira Banerjee
b) Justice Hima Kohli
c) Justice B.V. Nagarathna
d) Justice Bahri
3.How many Indian-origin researchers were named recipients of the Blavatnik Awards For Young Scientists in the UK?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
4. What theme did Amitav Ghosh receive the Erasmus Prize for in 2024?
a) Science and technology
b) Social justice
c) Imagining the unthinkable
d) Peace and diplomacy
5. Which book by Begum Rokeya Sakhawat Hossain was recently added to UNESCO’s “Memory of the World” list?
a) Sultana’s Dream
b) Padmarag
c) Abarodhbasini
d) Grihabibhuti
6. Ruskin Bond has been conferred the prestigious Sahitya Akademi Fellowship. What is Ruskin Bond known for?
a) Painting
b) Music
c) Writing
d) Dancing
7. Who has been appointed as Meghalaya’s first woman Director General of Police (DGP)?
a) S.K. Jain
b) Idashisha Nongrang
c) Nelli Nongrang
d) Phagu Chauhan
8. Who recently made history by becoming the first woman Vice Chancellor of Aligarh Muslim University (AMU)?
a) Dr. Naima Khatoon
b) Dr. Najma Akhtar
c) Dr. Zakia Soman
d) Dr. Tasneem Fatima
9. Major Radhika Sen, an Indian peacekeeper, was awarded the UN Military Gender Advocate of the Year award in which year?
a) 2020
b) 2021
c) 2022
d) 2023
10.Who won the Best Actress award at the 77th Cannes Film Festival for her role in “The Shameless”?
a) Priyanka Chopra
b) Anasuya Sengupta
c) Deepika Padukone
d) Alia Bhatt
MCQ CHALLENGE FOR KAS PRELIMS – DAY 14 – IMPORTANT DAYS
1. What is the theme for Teacher’s Day 2024?
a) Empowering Educators for a Brighter Future
b) Empowering Educators for a Sustainable Future
c) Celebrating Teachers’ Contributions
d) Honoring Excellence in Education
2. In what year did the tradition of celebrating Teacher’s Day begin?
a) 1950
b) 1985
c) 1975
d) 1962
3. When is Vijay Diwas celebrated in India?
a) December 16
b) July 26
c) August 15
d) January 26
4. When did the Indian Constitution come into force?
a) November 26, 1949
b) January 26, 1950
c) August 15, 1947
d) October 2, 1950
5. Who is National Education Day celebrated in honor of?
a) Jawaharlal Nehru
b) Mahatma Gandhi
c) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
d) Indira Gandhi
6. What three significant events in Lord Buddha’s life are commemorated on Vesak Day?
a) Birth, enlightenment, and teaching
b) Birth, enlightenment, and passing away (Parinirvana)
c) Enlightenment, teaching, and passing away
d) Birth, teaching, and ordination
7. In which Gregorian months does Ugadi typically fall?
a) January-February
b) March-April
c) May-June
d) July-August
8. In which year was National Statistics Day first celebrated?
a) 2005
b) 2006
c) 2007
d) 2008
9. Which organization recognizes World Milk Day?
a) World Health Organization (WHO)
b) Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO)
c) United Nations Children’s Fund (UNICEF)
d) International Fund for Agricultural Development (IFAD)
10.When is World Environment Day celebrated?
a) June 4
b) June 5
c) May 30
d) July 4
MCQ CHALLENGE FOR KAS PRELIMS – CSAT
-
The unit digit in the product (624 * 708 * 913 * 463) is:
A) 2
B) 5
C) 6
D) 8
2. The ratio of two numbers is 4 : 5 and their H.C.F is 4. Find their L.C.M.
A) 96
B) 80
C) 73
D) 48
3. If 2x +3y = 30 and (x+y)/y = 11/8, then find the value of 5y + 6x
A) 72
B) 58
C) 64
D) 29
MCQ CHALLENGE FOR KAS PRELIMS – DAY 12-13
1. Consider the following statements :
1. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill
2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants.
3. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correctly?
A.1 only
B.1 and 2 only
C.2 and 3 only
D.1, 2 and 3
2. The authorization for the withdrawal of funds from the Consolidated Fund of India must come from:
A. The President of India
B. The Parliament of India
C. The Prime Minister of India
D. The Union Finance Minister
3. Consider the following statements :
1. Article 81 deals with the Composition of the Lok Sabha
2. Article 84 of the Constitution lays down the qualifications for membership of Parliament
3. Under Article 75(3), the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible before the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correctly?
A.1 only
B.1 and 2 only
C.2 and 3 only
D.1, 2 and 3
4. The term of the Lok Sabha:
A. cannot be extended under any circumstances
B. can be extended by six months at a time
C. can be extended by one year at a time during the proclamation of emergency
D. can be extended for two years at a time during the proclamation of emergency
5. With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements
1. Prorogation of a House by the President of India does not require the advice of the Council of Ministers.
2. Prorogation of a House is generally done after the House is adjourned sine die, but there is no bar to the President of India prorogating the House which is in session.
3. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President of India, who, save in exceptional circumstances, does so on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 only
6. Consider the following statements:
The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts
1. consists of not more than 25 members of the Lok Sabha
2. scrutinizes appropriation and finance accounts of the Government
3. examines the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
7.Consider the following statements:
1. The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.
2. All executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
8. Consider the following statements
1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State any court during his term of office.
2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office.Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
9. Consider the following statements:
1. The Advocate General of a State in India is appointed by the President of India upon the recommendation of the Governor of the concerned State.
2. As provided in Civil Procedure Code, High Courts have original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction at the State level.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
10.Consider the following statements:
1. The Legislative Council of a State in India can be larger in size than half of the Legislative Assembly of that particular State.
2. The Governor of State nominates the Chairman of the Legislative Council of that particular State.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
11. Which of the following are included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
1. A dispute between the Government of India and one or more States
2. A dispute regarding elections to either House of the Parliament or that of Legislature of a State
3. A dispute between the Government of India and a Union Territory
4. A dispute between two or more States
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 4
D. 3 and 4
12. Who/Which of the following is the custodian of the Constitution of India?
A. The President of India
B. The Prime Minister of India
C. The Lok Sabha Secretariat
D. The Supreme Court of India
13. According to the Constitution of India, the term ‘District Judge’ shall not include:
A. chief presidency magistrate
B. sessions judge
C. tribunal judge
D. the chief judge of a small cause court
14. Who is known as the father of Panchayati Raj in India?
A. Balwant Rai Mehta
B. L M Singhvi
C. P K Thungon
D. None of the above
15.Consider the following statements :
1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
2. The Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-election.
3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 3 only
MCQ CHALLENGE FOR KAS PRELIMS – DAY 11
1. Which of the following statements are true ?
1. Article 74 says there shall be Council of Ministers to aid and advise President
2. Article 75 says President shall act by the advice tendered by Council of Ministers
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1&2
D. Neither 1nor2
2. Who was the first Attorney General of India?
A. M. C. Setalvad
B. C.K. Daftari
C. Niren de
D. S.V. Gupte
3. Which of the following statements are true ?
1. President can declare war and make peace
2. President promulgates an ordinance of the Union Cabinet
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