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Announcement

KAS for UPSC students

KPSC TEST SERIES

Prelims / Mains Classes

MCQ Practices

30 NOVEMBER 2024

1. Which of the following statements are true?
1. The Karnataka Public Schools initiative aims to upgrade 500 schools by 2029.
2. The total funding for the project is ₹1,500 crore, with ₹1,000 crore as a loan.
3. The schools operate in 300 taluks across the state.
4. The medium of instruction in Karnataka Public Schools is only Kannada.
A) 1 and 3
B) 1 and 2
C) 1 and 4
D) 2 and 3
2. Which of the following statements are true regarding Karnataka’s Stamps and Registration Department achievements in 2024?
1. The department has recorded a 26% revenue growth, exceeding the state’s average growth rate of 11%.
2. By October, ₹15,500 crore has been collected, with a total revenue target of ₹25,000 crore for the year.
3. Digital ownership certificates for bagair hukum lands are planned to be issued by March next year.
A) Only 1 and 2
B) Only 1
C) Only 2 and 3
D) All of the above
3. Which of the following statements are true regarding the E-Daakhil portal?
1. The portal was launched in 2021 by the Department of Consumer Affairs.
2. It enables consumers to file complaints and track case progress online.
3. The portal is designed for consumers from metropolitan as well as remote areas.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) All of the above
4. Which of the following statements about the Demoiselle cranes are true?
1. Demoiselle cranes migrate to sub-Saharan Africa and India during winter.
2. The species is classified as endangered on the IUCN Red List.
3. Khichan in Rajasthan is India’s first crane reserve.
4. Habitat loss and hunting are key threats to Demoiselle cranes.
A) All of the above
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 4 only
D) 1, 3, and 4
5. Which of the following statements about CARICOM are true?
1. CARICOM was established in 1973 and is headquartered in Kingston, Jamaica.
2. Its chairmanship rotates every six months among member states’ Heads of Government.
3. The Caribbean Court of Justice was established in 2007 as the final court of appeal for the region.
4. CARICOM has 15 full members, 5 associate members, and 6 observer states.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2, 3, and 4 only
C) 1, 3, and 4 only
D) All of the above
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MCQ CHALLENGE FOR KAS PRELIMS – DAY 65

1.Which of the following is an example of a biotic resource?
A) Iron
B) Water
C) Forests
D) Coal
2.Which of these natural resources is considered non-renewable?
A) Wind
B) Forests
C) Coal
D) Solar Energy
3. What is the primary use of fossil fuels like coal, oil, and natural gas?
A) Food production
B) Construction materials
C) Energy production
D) Agriculture
4. Which type of natural resource includes plants, animals, and fish?
A) Abiotic Resources
B) Renewable Resources
C) Biotic Resources
D) Non-renewable Resources
5. Which of the following is a non-renewable abiotic resource?
A) Air
B) Gold
C) Forests
D) Wind
6.What percentage of Earth’s water is fresh water?
A) 10%
B) 2%
C) 70%
D) 50%
7.Which of the following is a conventional natural resource?
A) Solar Energy
B) Wind Energy
C) Coal
D) Geothermal Energy
8. India ranks fourth in the world for the production of which natural resource?
A) Coal
B) Iron Ore
C) Oil
D) Gold
9. Which of these natural resources is crucial for agricultural production?
A) Iron
B) Soil
C) Wind
D) Coal
10. What is the primary purpose of renewable resources like solar energy and wind?
A) Construction materials
B) Economic development
C) Sustainable energy production
D) Food supply
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MCQ CHALLENGE FOR KAS PRELIMS – DAY 64

1. Which of the following statements about natural vegetation is true?
1. Virgin vegetation refers to plants grown with human assistance.
2. Flora represents the animals of a region.
3. Relief and soil influence the diversity of flora and fauna.
4. Fertile level land is used primarily for construction.
A. 1, 2
B. 3 only
C. 3, 4
D. 2, 4
2. Which of the following statements is true regarding soil types and vegetation?
1. Desert soils support cacti and thorny bushes.
2. Wet, marshy soils are found in deltaic regions and support mangroves.
3. Hill slopes are unsuitable for vegetation.
4. Fertile plains support dense coniferous forests.
A. 1, 2
B. 2, 3
C. 3, 4
D. 1, 4
3. Which statements about temperature and vegetation are true?
1. High temperatures support tropical vegetation.
2. Low temperatures support coniferous forests.
3. Plants grow faster in cold temperatures.
4. Temperature influences both plant type and growth rate.
A. 1, 2, 4
B. 1, 3
C. 2, 3, 4
D. 1, 4
4. Which statements about photoperiod are correct?
1. Photoperiod refers to the amount of rainfall a region receives.
2. Longer daylight in summer boosts photosynthesis.
3. Photoperiod influences the growth of plants and trees.
4. Shorter daylight in winter increases photosynthetic activity.
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 2, 3
C. 1, 4
D. 3, 4
5. Which statements about precipitation and vegetation are true?
1. Heavy rainfall supports dense forests.
2. Low rainfall leads to sparse vegetation.
3. Precipitation has no effect on vegetation type.
4. Grasslands are found in regions with moderate rainfall.
A. 1, 2, 4
B. 1, 3
C. 2, 3, 4
D. 3, 4
6. Which of the following is true about Tropical Evergreen Forests?
1. Found in regions receiving more than 200 cm rainfall annually.
2. Trees in these forests shed leaves in summer.
3. Include species like ebony, mahogany, and rubber.
4. Support wildlife like elephants and lemurs.
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 1, 3, 4
C. 2, 4
D. 1, 4
7.Which of the following statements about Tropical Deciduous Forests are correct?
1. Known as monsoon forests.
2. Found in areas receiving rainfall between 200 cm and 70 cm.
3. Trees retain leaves throughout the year.
4. Habitat for animals like lions and tigers.
A. 1, 2
B. 1, 3, 4
C. 1, 2, 4
D. 2, 3
8. Which statements about thorn forests and scrubs are true?
1. Found in semi-arid regions.
2. Plants have adaptations like deep roots and thorny stems.
3. These regions support dense forests.
4. Fauna includes camels and wild donkeys.
A. 1, 2, 4
B. 2, 3
C. 1, 4
D. 3, 4
9. Which of the following is true about Montane Forests?
1. Found in mountainous regions.
2. Include both wet temperate forests and alpine vegetation.
3. Located primarily in the Thar Desert.
4. Fauna includes snow leopards and red pandas.
A. 1, 2, 4
B. 1, 3
C. 2, 3
D. 1, 4
10. Which statements about mangrove forests are true?
1. Found in deltaic regions with saline sediments.
2. Sundari trees dominate these forests.
3. Located in the Himalayan foothills.
4. Home to the Royal Bengal Tiger.
A. 1, 2
B. 1, 2, 4
C. 2, 3
D. 3, 4
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28 NOVEMBER 2024

1.Which of the following statements are true about the government-run IVF centre in Karnataka?
1. The IVF clinic will operate under the obstetrics and gynaecology department.
2. All patients will be charged a flat fee for IVF treatments.
3. The clinic is funded entirely by government grants.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1 only
2.Which of the following statements are true about the coastal erosion in Karnataka?
1.91.6 km of Karnataka’s coastline is affected by erosion, which is a 110% increase since 1990.
2. Udupi has 43% of its coastline protected by seawalls.
3. Dakshina Kannada has no significant erosion stretches.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
3. Which of the following statements are true about the ONOS initiative?
1. ONOS will provide access to 13,000 journals starting from 2025.
2. The initiative is expected to increase the cost of academic journal access for institutions.
3. INFLIBNET is designated as the implementing agency for ONOS.
4. ONOS aims to provide access to journals only to Tier 1 cities.
A) 1, 3, and 4
B) 1, 2, and 4
C) 1 and 3
D) 2 and 4
4. India has proposed the creation of a multilateral fund to combat global plastic pollution at the fifth session of the Intergovernmental Negotiation Committee in Busan, South Korea. In this regard Which of the following statements are true?
1. The proposed multilateral fund will only focus on funding technology in developed nations.
2. Developed nations will be responsible for replenishing the fund periodically.
3. The fund is modeled after the Montreal Protocol Fund.
4. The governing body overseeing the fund will include only developed nations.
A) 1 and 2
B) 2 and 3
C) 1 and 4
D) 3 and 4
5. According to the Basic Animal Husbandry Statistics 2024, what is India’s rank in global milk production?
A) Second-largest
B) World’s largest
C) Third-largest
D) Fourth-largest
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MCQ CHALLENGE FOR KAS PRELIMS – DAY 63

1. Which of the following statements are true about alluvial soil?
1. Found mainly in the Indo-Gangetic plain.
2. Rich in nitrogen but poor in phosphorus.
3. Best suited for the cultivation of rice, wheat, and sugarcane.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the above
2. Which of the following statements are true about black soil?
1. Also known as Regur soil.
2. Rich in organic matter and humus.
3. Retains moisture for a long time.
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. All of the above
3. Which of the following statements are true about red soil?
1. Found mainly in Peninsular India.
2. Contains high levels of iron oxide, giving it a reddish color.
3. Ideal for growing cotton.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the above
4.Which of the following statements are true about laterite soil?
1. Found in areas of high rainfall and high temperature.
2. Suitable for tea and coffee cultivation.
3. Rich in lime and potassium.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the above
5.Which of the following statements are true about arid soils?
1. Found in regions of low rainfall.
2. High salt content.
3. Good for cultivation without irrigation.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the above
6.Which of the following statements are true about peaty and marshy soils?
1. Found in waterlogged areas.
2. Rich in organic matter.
3. Highly fertile for wheat cultivation.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the above
7.Which of the following statements are true about forest soils?
1. Found in hilly and mountainous areas.
2. Generally acidic in nature.
3. Fertile and rich in lime.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the above
8.Which of the following statements are true about alluvial soil regions?
1. Covers the largest area of India.
2. Deposited by rivers.
3. Poor in potash and magnesium.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the above
9. Which of the following statements are true about black soil’s use?
1. Excellent for cotton cultivation.
2. Poor drainage properties.
3. Found mostly in North India.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the above
10. Which of the following statements are true about red and yellow soils?
1. Yellow color appears when hydrated.
2. Deficient in nitrogen and organic matter.
3. Found in eastern and southern parts of the Deccan Plateau.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the above
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MCQ CHALLENGE FOR KAS PRELIMS – DAY 62

1. Which of the Following Statements are True?
1. The Tropic of Cancer passes through the central part of India in an east-west direction.
2. The northern part of India lies entirely in the tropical zone.
3. Southern India experiences smaller temperature variations due to the oceanic effect.
4. The Himalayas block cold winds from Central Asia, lending a tropical touch to India’s climate.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1, 3, and 4 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
2. Which of the Following Statements are True?
1. Western disturbances cause winter rainfall in northern India.
2. These disturbances originate over the Mediterranean region.
3. They bring snowfall to the plains of Punjab.
4. Western disturbances weaken as they move towards central India.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2, 3, and 4 only
c) 1, 2, and 4 only
d) All of the above
3. Which of the Following Statements are True?
1. The Indian Ocean is warmer than the North Indian Plains in summer.
2. Monsoonal winds are caused by the temperature-pressure differences between land and sea.
3. The southwest monsoon brings moisture to India, leading to heavy rainfall.
4. Northeastern monsoons bring rain to western India during October.
a) 1 and 4 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2, and 3 only
d) 2, 3, and 4 only
4. Which of the Following Statements are True?
1. The Himalayas prevent cold winds from Central Asia, protecting India from severe winters.
2. The Himalayas influence the monsoons by forcing the winds to release moisture.
3. The northern slopes of the Himalayas receive more rainfall than the southern slopes.
4. The Himalayan region is predominantly arid.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1, 2, and 3 only
d) All of the above
5. Which of the Following Statements are True?
1. The Indian climate is characterised by a complete reversal of winds in different seasons.
2. Southwest winds blow during winter, bringing heavy rains.
3. The northeast trade winds dominate India’s winter climate.
4. The summer monsoons cause over 80% of India’s annual rainfall.
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1, 3, and 4 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) All of the above
6. Which of the Following Statements are True?
1. The cold weather season in India spans December to February.
2. During this season, northern India remains cooler than southern India.
3. Cyclonic activity is a significant feature of the cold weather season.
4. Low temperatures and high-pressure systems dominate the plains during this season.
a) 1 and 4 only
b) 1, 2, and 4 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) All of the above
7. Which of the Following Statements are True?
1. India’s coastal areas experience smaller diurnal temperature variations.
2. The Thar Desert has large day-night temperature differences.
3. The Andaman Islands have an annual temperature range of 15-20°C.
4. In Tawang, summer temperatures can rise above 50°C.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1, 2, and 3 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) All of the above
8. Which of the Following Statements are True?
1. The retreating monsoon season occurs during October-November.
2. Cyclonic activity is common in eastern India during this period.
3. The retreating monsoons bring rainfall to northern India.
4. Southern India receives post-monsoon showers during this time.
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1, 2, and 4 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) All of the above
9. Which of the Following Statements are True?
1. Jet streams influence the onset of the monsoon in India.
2. Tropical easterly jet streams are dominant during the summer monsoons.
3. Jet streams originate in the lower layers of the atmosphere.
4. The westerly jet stream affects India’s winter weather.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1, 2, and 4 only
d) All of the above
10. Which of the Following Statements are True?
1. Kerala receives heavy rainfall due to its location on the windward side of the Western Ghats.
2. Bangalore lies in the rain-shadow region, receiving less rainfall.
3. The northern slopes of the Himalayas are wetter than the southern slopes.
4. Mawsynram is one of the wettest places on Earth.
a) 1, 2, and 4 only
b) 1 and 4 only
c) 1, 3, and 4 only
d) All of the above
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26 NOVEMBER 2024

1.Which of the following statements are true?
1. The continuation of Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) has been approved with a budget of Rs. 3,000 crore until 2028.
2. AIM 2.0 will focus on strengthening India’s innovation ecosystem by attracting more innovators and entrepreneurs.
3. The Frontier Program of AIM 2.0 aims to create 2500 new Atal Tinkering Labs (ATLs) in regions such as Jammu & Kashmir, Ladakh, and North Eastern States.
4. The Industrial Accelerator Program of AIM 2.0 will engage industry to support the scaling of startups in only the technology sector.
A) 1 and 2 are true
B) 2 and 3 are true
C) 3 and 4 are true
D) 1 and 4 are true
2.Which of the following statements are true about PAN 2.0?
1. The PAN 2.0 project has been allocated Rs 1,435 crore for its implementation.
2. PAN 2.0 will be entirely paper-based for easier record-keeping.
3. PAN 2.0 will integrate QR codes for improved data security and tax integration.
A) 1 and 3 only
B) 1 and 2 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
3. Which of the following statements are true?
1. The National Mission on Natural Farming (NMNF) aims to promote chemical-based farming practices.
2. The scheme is funded by both the Centre and the states with a total budget of ₹2,481 crore.
A) Only statement 1 is true
B) Only statement 2 is true
C) Both statements are true
D) Neither statement is true
4. Which of the following statements are true?
1. The Department of Tourism plans to build 20 “traveller nooks” at Hampi, a UNESCO World Heritage site, to increase tourist visits from 1.28 million to 2.06 million within the next five years.
2. The Manjusha Museum, owned by Dharmasthala Dharmadhikari Dr D Veerendra Heggade, has received special recognition for having the largest collection of antiques from the India Book of Records.
A) Only statement 1 is true.
B) Only statement 2 is true.
C) Both statements are true.
D) Both statements are false.
5. Which of the following statements are true?
1. Minister M.B. Patil has announced a proposal to rename railway stations in Koppal district to honor local deities and historical figures, including renaming Gangavati to Anjanadri.
2. Scientists from JNCASR have discovered a new method for detecting the Monkeypox virus, which includes developing a fluorescent small-molecule probe for precise detection.
A) Only statement 1 is true.
B) Only statement 2 is true.
C) Both statements are true.
D) Both statements are false.
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MCQ CHALLENGE FOR KAS PRELIMS – DAY 61

1. Which of the following statements about drainage is true?
1. Drainage refers to the flow of water through undefined channels.
2. A drainage system is a network of channels formed by rivers and basins.
3. Geological structure has no impact on the drainage pattern.
4. The velocity of water does not affect the drainage system.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 1, 2, and 3
d) 2 and 4
2. Which of the following is true about the dendritic drainage pattern?
1. It resembles the branching pattern of tree roots.
2. It develops in areas with parallel elongated landforms.
3. It is the most common type of drainage pattern.
4. Tributaries join the main stream at obtuse angles.
a) 1 and 3
b) 1, 2, and 3
c) 1, 3, and 4
d) 1, 2, and 4
3. Which of the following describes the trellis drainage pattern correctly?
1. It develops in folded topography.
2. Tributaries join the main stream at high angles.
3. Hard and soft rocks exist parallel to each other.
4. It is common in the northern plains of India.
a) 1 and 2
b) 1, 3, and 4
c) 1 and 3
d) 2, 3, and 4
4. Which of the following is true about the radial drainage pattern?
1. Rivers flow from a central elevated point in all directions.
2. It is typical of areas with conical features like volcanoes.
3. It is found in the Vindhya mountain range.
4. The rivers Narmada and Son follow this pattern.
a) 1, 2, and 4
b) 1 and 2
c) 2 and 3
d) 1, 3, and 4
5. Which of the following features belong to the Himalayan drainage system?
1. Formation of V-shaped valleys in the plains.
2. Perennial nature due to snowmelt and precipitation.
3. Formation of ox-bow lakes in the mountainous course.
4. Deposition features near the river mouth.
a) 1, 2, and 3
b) 2 and 4
c) 2, 3, and 4
d) 1, 2, and 4
6. Which of the following rivers are part of the Indus river system?
1. Chenab
2. Gomati
3. Jhelum
4. Sutlej
a) 1, 2, and 3
b) 1, 3, and 4
c) 2 and 4
d) 1, 2, and 4
7. Which of the following is true about the Ganga river system?
1. The Ganga originates from the Yamunotri glacier.
2. It enters the Northern plains at Haridwar.
3. The Son river is a major right-bank tributary.
4. The river flows into the Arabian Sea.
a) 2 and 3
b) 1, 2, and 4
c) 2, 3, and 4
d) 1, 3, and 4
8. Which of the following rivers follow a rectangular drainage pattern?
1. Chambal
2. Betwa
3. Ken
4. Kaveri
a) 1 and 2
b) 1, 2, and 3
c) 2, 3, and 4
d) 1, 3, and 4
9. Which of the following statements about centripetal drainage patterns is true?
1. Streams flow toward a central depression.
2. It is opposite to the radial drainage pattern.
3. It is found in Loktak lake in Manipur.
4. It leads to the formation of braided channels.
a) 1, 2, and 3
b) 1 and 4
c) 2, 3, and 4
d) 1 and 3
10. Which of the following is true about the Brahmaputra river system?
1. It originates in the Chemayungdung glacier.
2. In Tibet, it is known as Tsangpo.
3. It merges with the Yamuna in Bangladesh.
4. Subansiri and Manas are its tributaries.
a) 1 and 2
b) 1, 2, and 4
c) 1, 2, and 3
d) 2, 3, and 4
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25 NOVEMBER 2024

1.Which of the following statements are true?
1. E-Khata is an electronic version of A or B Khata for property ownership documentation.
2. Blockchain technology is used to protect E-Khata data from being hacked or manipulated.
3. E-Khata can only be accessed via a physical form, not online.
4. Blockchain stores data in centralized nodes connected via a chain.
A) 1, 2, 3
B) 1, 2, 4
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 3, 4
2. Which of the following statements are true?
1. The COP29 agreement proposes a $300 billion annual fund to assist developing countries with climate change efforts.
2. India strongly supported the $300 billion funding proposal.
3. The proposal includes both public and private funding sources, as well as carbon credit trading.
4. Developing countries unanimously accepted the $300 billion figure as sufficient for climate action.
A) 1, 2, 3
B) 1, 3, 4
C) 1, 3
D) 2, 3, 4
3. Which of the following statements are TRUE?
1. The CBG plant in Gwalior was inaugurated on October 2, 2024.
2. The CBG plant produces 5 tons of Bio-CNG daily from cattle dung.
3. The plant was developed in collaboration with the Indian Oil Corporation.
4. The project is located in Laltipara, Gwalior.
A) 1, 3, 4
B) 2, 3, 4
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 3, 4
4.Which of the following statements are true?
1. India’s urban population is expected to double to 800 million by 2050.
2. The urban infrastructure financing gap is estimated to be ₹70 lakh crore by 2036.
3. Municipal finances in India have grown consistently at 5% annually since 2002.
4. Public-Private Partnerships (PPPs) have witnessed a reduction in investments from ₹8,353 crore in 2012 to ₹467 crore in 2018.
A) 1, 2, and 3
B) 2 and 4
C) 1, 3, and 4
D) 3 and 4
5.Which of the following statements are TRUE?
1. Lakkundi village in Gadag district is aiming to be listed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
2. Project Veer Gatha 4.0 involves over 1 crore students from only the northern states.
3. Nafithromycin, an antibiotic, was launched to tackle antimicrobial resistance.
4. Prasar Bharati’s new app, Waves, offers no live TV or on-demand content.
A) 1, 2, 3
B) 2, 3, 4
C) 1, 3, 4
D) 1, 3
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MCQ CHALLENGE FOR KAS PRELIMS – DAY 60

1. Which of the following statements about the Himalayan Mountains is true?
1. The Himalayas are geologically old and stable mountains.
2. The width of the Himalayas decreases from Kashmir to Arunachal Pradesh.
3. The Great Himalayas, also known as Himadri, contain the loftiest peaks.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 3 only
2. Which of the following statements about the Northern Plains is true?
1. The Northern Plains are formed by the depositional activity of the Indus, Ganga, and Brahmaputra river systems.
2. The Bhabar region is a marshy tract south of the Terai.
3. The Khadar region consists of older alluvium, higher in elevation than the Bhangar.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 2 and 3 only
3. Which of the following statements about the Peninsular Plateau is true?
1. It is part of the Gondwana landmass.
2. The Western Ghats are discontinuous and irregular.
3. The Deccan Plateau slopes gently eastwards.
A) 1 and 3 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 2 only
D) All of the above
4. Which of the following statements about the Indian Desert is true?
1. It lies towards the western margins of the Aravali Hills.
2. The Luni River is the only major river in this region.
3. This region receives more than 250 mm of rainfall annually.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) All of the above
5. Which of the following statements about the Coastal Plains is true?
1. The Western Coastal Plains are narrower than the Eastern Coastal Plains.
2. The Konkan coast lies in the southernmost stretch of the Western Coastal Plains.
3. Chilika Lake is a saltwater lake along the Eastern Coastal Plains.
A) 1 and 3 only
B) 1 and 2 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) All of the above
6. Which of the following statements about the Andaman and Nicobar Islands is true?
1. These islands are of volcanic origin.
2. They experience an equatorial climate.
3. Barren Island in this group has India’s only active volcano.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) All of the above
7. Which of the following statements about the Purvachal Hills is true?
1. They are part of the Eastern Himalayas.
2. They include the Naga, Patkai, and Mizo Hills.
3. These hills are covered with dense forests.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) All of the above
8. Which of the following statements about the Western Ghats is true?
1. They lie parallel to the eastern coast of India.
2. Anai Mudi is the highest peak in the Western Ghats.
3. They are known for causing orographic rainfall.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) All of the above
9. Which of the following statements about the Central Highlands is true?
1. They are part of the Deccan Plateau.
2. The Chambal and Betwa rivers flow through this region.
3. They are wider in the west than in the east.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) All of the above
10. Which of the following statements about the Northern Plains’ divisions is true?
1. Punjab Plains are dominated by Doabs.
2. Brahmaputra Plains lie entirely in Assam.
3. Ganga Plains are spread across Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, and West Bengal.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) All of the above
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23 NOVEMBER 2024

1. According to recent data, what percentage of women in Bengaluru accessed four or more antenatal services?
A) 77%
B) 66%
C) 59%
D) 85%
2.What is the main goal of the Global Energy Efficiency Alliance launched at COP29?
A) To reduce global energy consumption
B) To double global energy efficiency rates by 2030
C) To promote renewable energy sources
D) To eliminate carbon emissions globally
3.What is the primary purpose of the AroTrack device?
A) To detect harmful aromatic pollutants in water
B) To purify water
C) To measure the temperature of water
D) To increase water flow
4.Where was the Global Alliance Against Hunger and Poverty launched?
A) India
B) Brazil
C) USA
D) Japan
5. What is the main cause of Delhi’s air pollution in winter?
A) Stubble burning
B) Vehicle emissions
C) Local industrial emissions
D) Meteorological factors like cold air
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MCQ CHALLENGE FOR KAS PRELIMS – DAY 59

1. What is the primary role of the Indian Judiciary?
A) Conduct elections
B) Enforce laws and safeguard rights
C) Collect taxes
D) Develop economic policies
2.Which is the highest court in the Indian Judiciary?
A) High Court
B) District Court
C) Supreme Court
D) Trial Court
3. How many High Courts are currently in India?
A) 21
B) 25
C) 29
D) 31
4. What does the term “appellate system” refer to in the Indian Judiciary?
A) The system of promoting judges
B) The system of appealing judgments to higher courts
C) The election of judges
D) The legislative process for creating laws
5. The Indian Judiciary operates under which kind of judicial system?
A) Separate
B) Integrated
C) Federal
D) Confederal
6. Where is the seat of Supreme Court of India located?
A) Mumbai
B) Kolkata
C) New Delhi
D) Chennai
7. Which was the first city to establish a High Court in India in 1862?
A) Delhi
B) Calcutta
C) Bangalore
D) Chandigarh
8. What is the role of the District Judge in the Indian Judiciary?
A) To draft new laws
B) To preside over district-level courts
C) To manage the state judiciary
D) To supervise the Supreme Court
9. Which of the following is a Criminal Law offense?
A) Dispute over rent
B) Theft
C) Divorce case
D) Sale of land
10. What does the term “Rule of Law” imply in India?
A) Laws are applicable only to specific groups
B) Laws apply equally to all citizens
C) Government officials are above the law
D) Laws apply only to the judiciary
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MCQ CHALLENGE FOR KAS PRELIMS – DAY 58

1. Which of the following statements are true regarding the Union Executive?
1. The Union Executive consists of the President, Vice President, Prime Minister, Council of Ministers, and Attorney General of India.
2. The Union Executive’s powers are limited to Articles 74–76.
3. The Council of Ministers is collectively accountable to the Rajya Sabha.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1 only
2. Which of the following is true about the parliamentary system in India?
1. The Prime Minister is the de facto head of the government.
2. The President is the nominal head of the State.
3. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the President.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
3. Which of the following statements are true regarding the President of India?
1. The President holds executive power as per Article 53.
2. The President’s powers include the appointment of judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts.
3. The President exercises all powers independently.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
4. Which of the following statements is true about the executive in a parliamentary democracy?
1. The executive is a subset of the legislature.
2. The executive and legislature strictly adhere to the separation of powers.
3. The executive is collectively accountable to Parliament.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
5. Which of the following statements are true regarding the Vice President of India?
1. The Vice President is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
2. The Vice President assumes the role of the President in case of absence or vacancy.
3. The Vice President has independent legislative powers.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
6. Which of the following statements about the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers is true?
1. The Prime Minister heads the Council of Ministers.
2. The Council of Ministers is individually accountable to the Vice President.
3. The Council of Ministers aids and advises the President in exercising powers.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
7. Which of the following is true regarding the Attorney General of India?
1. The Attorney General is the highest law officer in the country.
2. The Attorney General is appointed by the President.
3. The Attorney General is a part of the Council of Ministers.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
8. Which of the following statements are true about the financial role of the executive in India?
1. The Executive formulates the Budget annually.
2. The Executive can raise taxes without Parliament’s approval.
3. The Executive is responsible for determining expenditure levels.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
9. Which of the following is true about the composition of the Union Executive?
1. It includes civil servants as part of the administrative machinery.
2. The Prime Minister is a part of the permanent executive.
3. The Vice President does not play a role in the Union Executive.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 only
D) 1 and 3 only
10. Which of the following statements are true regarding the roles of the President?
1. The President has military powers, exercised with the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers.
2. The President is responsible for maintaining internal peace and order.
3. The President can issue ordinances independently of the Council of Ministers.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
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21 NOVEMBER 2024

1. Which of the following statements are true regarding Karnataka’s Space Policy 2024-29?
1. The policy aims to capture a 10% share in the global space market within a decade.
2. Bengaluru is a key strategic hub for India’s space technology development.
3. The policy includes training 5,000 individuals for space-sector jobs, with a focus on women.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
2. Which of the following statements are true regarding the CCPI 2025?
1. India ranks in the top five globally due to its low per capita emissions and renewable energy initiatives.
2. The top three ranks of the CCPI 2025 remain vacant as no country achieved a “very high” rating.
3. China and the US are ranked among the top 20 performers in the CCPI 2025.
4. Denmark is the highest-ranked country, followed by the Netherlands.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2, 3, and 4 only
C) 2 and 4 only
D) 1, 2, and 4 only
3. Which of the following statements about the Uber Shuttle service is true?
1. Uber Shuttle is operational in Bengaluru and helps reduce traffic congestion with pre-booked seats.
2. The service aims to expand to Bengaluru, potentially operating from Hebbal and the Outer Ring Road tech hub, pending regulatory approval.
3. Uber Shuttle is currently operational in Delhi and Kolkata.
A) Only 2 and 3
B) Only 1 and 2
C) Only 1 and 3
D) All of the above
4.Which of the following statements about Go Ru Channabasappa is true?
1. Go Ru Channabasappa is 94 years old and was unanimously elected as the president of the 87th All India Kannada Sahitya Sammelana.
2. He has authored over 50 works and is known as the ‘Bhishma of folklore’ for his contributions to Kannada literature.
3. He served as president of Kannada Sahitya Parishath from 1990 to 1994 and presided over the 1992 Kannada Sahitya Sammelana in Mandya.
A) Only 1 and 2
B) Only 1 and 3
C) Only 2 and 3
D) All of the above
5.Which of the following statements about the Tamil Nadu government’s seagrass restoration initiative is true?
1. The project covers 15 acres of degraded seagrass in the Gulf of Mannar Marine Biosphere Reserve.
2. The Gulf of Mannar includes 21 islands and coral reefs off the Ramanathapuram and Thoothukudi coasts.
3. The restoration initiative focuses exclusively on protecting green turtles, which are the primary marine organisms in the region.
A) Only 1 and 3
B) Only 2 and 3
C) Only 1 and 2
D) All of the above
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MCQ CHALLENGE FOR KAS PRELIMS – DAY 57

1. Which of the following statements are true about Fundamental Rights in India?
1. Fundamental Rights are justiciable, meaning they can be enforced by the courts.
2. Right to Property is a Fundamental Right under the Constitution.
3. Fundamental Rights are available only to Indian citizens.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
2. Which of the following statements are true about Fundamental Duties in India?
1. Fundamental Duties were added by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976.
2. They are enforceable by law.
3. Fundamental Duties apply to all individuals residing in India.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 2 and 3 only
3. Which of the following statements are true about the Right to Equality?
1. It prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
2. It guarantees equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
3. It includes the abolition of untouchability and titles.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
4. Which of the following statements are true about the Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Duties?
1. Fundamental Duties are inspired by the Indian cultural and historical traditions.
2. Directive Principles are enforceable by law.
3. Both Fundamental Duties and Directive Principles aim to promote social and economic welfare.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
5. Which of the following statements are true about the Right to Constitutional Remedies?
1. It allows citizens to move courts to enforce Fundamental Rights.
2. The Supreme Court and High Courts can issue writs for enforcement.
3. It is not available to foreigners residing in India.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
6. Which of the following statements are true regarding the Right to Freedom?
1. It includes the freedom of speech and expression.
2. It allows citizens to form associations and unions.
3. It permits unlimited freedom without restrictions.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
7. Which of the following statements are true about Fundamental Rights?
1. They can be suspended during a national emergency.
2. They are protected from amendment by Parliament.
3. They include the Right to Education for children aged 6-14 years.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
8. Which of the following statements are true about the Fundamental Duty of promoting harmony?
1. It emphasizes religious tolerance.
2. It applies only to public officials.
3. It is meant to uphold the unity and integrity of India.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
9. Which of the following statements are true about the Right against Exploitation?
1. It prohibits human trafficking.
2. It allows forced labor for economic development.
3. It includes the prohibition of child labor in hazardous industries.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
10. Which of the following statements are true about the Fundamental Duty to protect the environment?
1. It includes preserving forests and wildlife.
2. It is applicable only to urban areas.
3. It is essential for maintaining ecological balance.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
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20 NOVEMBER 2024

1. Which of the following statements are true?
1. The Karnataka government plans to establish 500 new GCCs by 2029.
2. The NIPUNA Karnataka program aims to train 1 lakh candidates with a 70% placement rate by 2024.
3. A new Electronics Manufacturing Cluster (EMC) will be set up in Bengaluru.
4. The Bengaluru Tech Summit saw participation from over 50 countries.
A) 1 and 4
B) 1 and 2
C) 2 and 3
D) 3 and 4
2. Which of the following statements are true about the Guru Ghasidas-Tamor Pingla Tiger Reserve?
1. It is the 56th Tiger Reserve in India.
2. The reserve covers a total area of 4500 sq km.
3. The core habitat includes Guru Ghasidas National Park and Tamor Pingla Wildlife Sanctuary.
A) 2 and 3 only
B) 2 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
3. Which of the following statements are true?
1. The GSAT-20 satellite weighs 4,700 kg.
2. The launch was the first collaboration between ISRO and SpaceX.
3. GSAT-20 is primarily designed for military communication purposes.
A) Only 2
B) Only 1& 2 are true
C) Only 1 is true
D) All three statements are true
4. Which of the following statements are true?
1. The India-Italy strategic action plan will focus on sectors such as defense, trade, clean energy, and connectivity.
2. The collaboration between India and Italy will solely focus on space exploration and defense.
3. The plan aims to strengthen bilateral ties through mutual cooperation in economic, cultural, and global matters.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
5. Which of the following statements are true?
1. ISRO tracks glacial lake expansion, which has increased by 27% since 1984, aiding in flood prediction.
2. Satellites, such as the Copernicus Sentinel-3, monitor air and surface temperatures to help assess climate change.
3. The Earth Observation market is expected to reach $500 billion by 2030, according to the World Economic Forum.
A) Only statement 1 is true.
B) Only statements 2 and 3 are true.
C) All statements are true.
D) Only statements 1 and 2 are true.
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MCQ CHALLENGE FOR KAS PRELIMS – DAY 56

1. Which of the following statements about the Preamble of the Indian Constitution are true?
1. The Preamble is enforceable in a court of law.
2. It presents the intention of the framers of the Constitution.
3. It is not considered part of the Constitution.
4. It provides an interpretative aid for ambiguous articles in the Constitution.
A) 1 And 2
B) 2 And 4
C) 1 And 3
D) 3 And 4
2. Which of the following are core objectives stated in the Preamble?
1. Justice
2. Prosperity
3. Fraternity
4. Liberty
A) 1, 2, And 3
B) 1, 3, And 4
C) 2 And 4
D) 1, 2, And 4
3. Which of the following additions to the Preamble were made through the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976?
1. Socialist
2. Secular
3. Republic
4. Integrity
A) 1, 2, And 3
B) 1 And 2
C) 1, 2, And 4
D) 2, 3, And 4
4. What does the term “Sovereign” in the Preamble signify?
1. India is independent and not subject to any external authority.
2. India has a hereditary monarchy.
3. The legislature has limited powers.
4. India can participate in international organizations while retaining autonomy.
A) 1 And 4
B) 1, 2, And 3
C) 1 Only
D) 3 And 4
5. What is true about the source of authority of the Constitution, as indicated in the Preamble?
1. It lies with the people of India.
2. It lies with the judiciary.
3. It lies with the legislature.
4. It lies with the President of India.
A) 1 Only
B) 1 And 2
C) 1 And 3
D) 1 And 4
6. Which of the following correctly explains “Socialist” as stated in the Preamble?
1. It denotes faith in a mixed economy.
2. It ensures the dominance of public enterprises.
3. It promotes democratic means to achieve socialist ends.
4. It was incorporated by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976.
A) 1, 2, And 3
B) 1 And 3
C) 1, 3, And 4
D) 2, 3, And 4
7. Which case declared the Preamble as part of the Constitution?
1. Berubari Case
2. Kesavananda Bharati Case
3. LIC of India Case
4. Maneka Gandhi Case
A) 1 And 2
B) 2 Only
C) 2 And 3
D) 3 And 4
8. Which of the following statements about Justice as mentioned in the Preamble are true?
1. It encompasses social, economic, and political justice.
2. Economic justice means wealth and income equality.
3. Social justice promotes a society free of discrimination.
4. Political justice means only citizens of a specific group can participate in elections.
A) 1, 2, And 3
B) 1 And 3
C) 2 And 4
D) 1, 3, And 4
9. The terms Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity in the Preamble are inspired by which of the following?
1. The American Revolution
2. The French Revolution
3. The Industrial Revolution
4. The Russian Revolution
A) 1 Only
B) 2 Only
C) 3 And 4
D) 1 And 2
10. Which of the following is NOT true about the Preamble?
1. It can be amended.
2. It provides an exhaustive legal framework.
3. It mentions the adoption date of the Constitution.
4. It serves as an interpretative guide.
A) 1 Only
B) 2 Only
C) 1 And 4
D) 2 And 3
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19 NOVEMBER 2024

1. Which of the following statements are true about the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India?
1. The CAG is appointed by the Prime Minister of India.
2. The CAG holds office for six years or until the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
3. The CAG’s salary and service conditions are determined by the President.
4. The CAG has the power to audit the accounts of the Union and state governments.
A) Only Statement 2 is true
B) Only Statements 2 and 4 are true
C) Statements 1, 2, and 4 are true
D) Only Statements 2 and 3 are true
2. Which of the following statements are true?
1. Leh is projected to experience the highest temperature increase under all emission scenarios.
2. Western India will experience less precipitation than eastern India under all emission scenarios.
3. A summer wet bulb temperature exceeding 31°C poses severe health risks in 24-25 districts.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
3. Which of the following statements are true?
1. All king cobras were previously classified as Ophiophagus hannah.
2. The discovery of four distinct king cobra species will allow for species-specific anti-venom.
3. King cobras are the only snakes that construct and guard their nests.
A) Only 1 and 2
B) Only 2 and 3
C) Only 1 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
4. Which of the following statements are true?
1.The Nugu Wildlife Sanctuary spans an area of 30.32 sq km.
2.The NTCA’s recommendation to notify Nugu as a core area of Bandipur Tiger Reserve has been implemented.
3.The Nugu Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in the Western Ghats biogeographic zone.
4.The nearest railhead to the sanctuary is Gundlupet.
A) 1 and 3 only
B) 2 and 4 only
C) 1, 3, and 4 only
D) 1, 2, and 3 only
5. Which of the following statements are true about comb jellies (Mnemiopsis leidyi)?
1. They have stinging tentacles for capturing prey.
2. They can defy age and revert to younger versions.
A) Only 1 is true
B) Only 2 is true
C) Both 1 and 2 are true
D) Neither 1 nor 2 is true
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MCQ CHALLENGE FOR KAS PRELIMS – DAY 55

1. Which of the following statements are true about the Indian Constitution?
1. It is the longest written constitution in the world.
2. It establishes India as a federal state.
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Which of the following statements are true about the Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution?
1. They are inspired by the American Bill of Rights.
2. They are absolute and cannot be restricted by the state.
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Which of the following statements are true about the Indian Constitution?
1. It provides for a parliamentary form of government.
2. It ensures separation of powers between the executive and judiciary only.
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2
4. Which of the following statements are true about the Indian Constitution?
1. The Constitution establishes a secular state.
2. The term ‘Secular’ was part of the original preamble.
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2
5. Which of the following statements are true about the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)?
1. DPSPs are enforceable by the courts.
2. DPSPs aim to establish economic and social democracy.
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2
6. Which of the following statements are true about the Indian Constitution?
1. It provides for single citizenship.
2. It provides equal rights to all citizens irrespective of their state of residence.
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2
7. Which of the following statements are true about the Indian Constitution?
1. It is rigid in nature.
2. It allows for amendments through a special process.
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2
8. Which of the following statements are true about the Emergency provisions in the Indian Constitution?
The President can impose a National Emergency only on the advice of the Chief Justice of India.
During a National Emergency, the federal structure of the country is transformed into a unitary one.
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2
9. Which of the following statements are true about the Indian Constitution?
1. It establishes a balance between the fundamental rights and directive principles of state policy.
2. Fundamental rights always override directive principles in case of conflict.
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2
10. Which of the following statements are true about the Indian Constitution?
1. It borrows heavily from the constitutions of other countries.
2. It was drafted primarily by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar without input from others.
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2
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18 NOVEMBER 2024

1. Which of the following statements are true?
1. D-PoC helps create digital twins of patients’ feet to predict foot behavior over a period of time.
2. The Diabetic Foot Care Initiative currently covers only diabetic neuropathy conditions in Karnataka.
A) Only statement 1 is true.
B) Only statement 2 is true.
C) Both statements are true.
D) Neither statement is true.
2. Karnataka Transport Department is set to introduce advanced smart cards for Driving Licenses. In this regard, Which of the following statements are true?
1. The new smart cards will be made of PVC material.
2. Karnataka’s smart card system will be similar to the ones in Tamil Nadu, Chhattisgarh, and Himachal Pradesh.
3. The QR code on the new smart cards will provide instant access to cardholder details.
A) Only 1 and 2
B) Only 2 and 3
C) Only 1 and 3
D) Only 2 and 3
3. Which of the following statements about the Partnerships for Accelerated Innovation and Research (PAIR) initiative are true?
1. The PAIR initiative is aligned with the objectives of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020.
2. It follows a hub-and-spoke model, with top-tier institutions acting as spoke institutions.
3. The initiative was launched by the Ministry of Education under the National Research Framework (NRF).
4. Each PAIR network includes one hub institution and up to seven spoke institutions.
A) 2, 3, and 4 only
B) 1, 2, and 4 only
C) 1 and 4 only
D) 1, 2, 3, and 4
4. Which of the following statements are true?
1. India’s hypersonic missile test was conducted at Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam Island and has a range of over 1,500 km.
2. Hypersonic missiles travel at speeds below Mach 5 but possess superior maneuverability compared to traditional ballistic missiles.
3. Russia and China are ahead of India in hypersonic missile development, with Russia using a hypersonic missile in combat in Ukraine.
A) All of the above
B) Only 1 and 3
C) Only 2 and 3
D) Only 1 and 2
5. Which of the following statements are true about CO2 and its role in climate change?
1. CO2 is less potent than methane (CH4) in trapping heat but contributes more to global warming due to its higher concentration and longer atmospheric lifetime.
2. Water vapor is the most abundant greenhouse gas, but its short atmospheric cycle limits its contribution to long-term warming compared to CO2.
3. CO2 emissions have not significantly increased since the Industrial Revolution, and their impact on global warming is less than other greenhouse gases.
A) Only 1 and 2 are true
B) Only 2 and 3 are true
C) Only 1 and 3 are true
D) All 1, 2, and 3 are true
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MCQ CHALLENGE FOR KAS PRELIMS – DAY 54

1. Which of the following statements are true?
1. The Regulating Act of 1773 was the first step taken by the British government to regulate the affairs of the East India Company in India.
2. The Charter Act of 1833 was the last of the Charter Acts passed by the British Parliament.
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
2. Which of the following statements are true?
1. The Indian Councils Act of 1861 introduced a system of election in India.
2. The Government of India Act of 1935 provided for the establishment of an All-India Federation.
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
3. Which of the following statements are true?
1. The Morley-Minto Reforms of 1909 introduced the concept of separate electorates in India.
2. The Montague-Chelmsford Reforms of 1919 introduced the system of Dyarchy at the provincial level.
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
4. Which of the following statements are true?
1. The Simon Commission was formed in 1927 to review the working of the Government of India Act, 1919.
2. The Commission included representation from Indian leaders.
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
5. Which of the following statements are true?
1. The Cripps Mission of 1942 proposed the establishment of an Indian Union with dominion status.
2. The Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946 rejected the idea of a Constituent Assembly.
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
6. Which of the following statements are true?
1. The Government of India Act, 1919 introduced bicameralism at the central level.
2. The Act also provided for a federal structure in India.
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
7. Which of the following statements are true?
1. The Indian Independence Act of 1947 provided for the partition of India into India and Pakistan.
2. The Act also abolished the jurisdiction of the British Parliament over India.
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
8. Which of the following statements are true?
1. The Charter Act of 1813 ended the monopoly of the East India Company over trade in India.
2. It also allowed missionaries to propagate Christianity in India.
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
9. Which of the following statements are true?
1. The Pitts India Act of 1784 brought the dual system of governance in India to an end.
2. It established the Board of Control to oversee the East India Company’s affairs.
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
10. Which of the following statements are true?
1. The August Offer of 1940 proposed the expansion of the Viceroy’s Executive Council.
2. It also promised Dominion Status for India after the war.
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
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MCQ CHALLENGE FOR KAS PRELIMS – DAY 53

Directions for Questions 1-5:
The table below shows the production (in thousand units) of different products (A, B, C, D) by a company over five years.
1. What is the percentage increase in the production of Product A from 2018 to 2022?
A) 30%
B) 40%
C) 50%
D) 70%
2. In which year was the total production of all products the highest?
A) 2018
B) 2020
C) 2022
D) 2021
3. What is the average production of Product B over the five years?
A) 160 thousand units
B) 170 thousand units
C) 150 thousand units
D) 180 thousand units
4. By how many thousand units did the total production of Product D increase from 2018 to 2022?
A) 30 thousand
B) 40 thousand
C) 50 thousand
D) 60 thousand
5. Which product showed the highest percentage growth in production from 2018 to 2022?
A) Product A
B) Product B
C) Product C
D) Product D
Directions for Questions 6-10:
The following data shows the percentage distribution of the expenditure of a family on various items in a month. The total monthly expenditure is ₹40,000.
Expenditure Categories:
Food: 25%
Rent: 30%
Education: 15%
Transportation: 10%
Miscellaneous: 20%
6. How much money is spent on food per month?
A) ₹10,000
B) ₹8,000
C) ₹12,000
D) ₹15,000
7. What percentage of the total expenditure is spent on transportation and miscellaneous combined?
A) 20%
B) 30%
C) 25%
D) 40%
8. If the rent increases by 10%, what will be the new expenditure on rent?
A) ₹12,000
B) ₹13,200
C) ₹11,500
D) ₹10,800
9. How much more is spent on rent than on education?
A) ₹5,000
B) ₹6,000
C) ₹7,000
D) ₹8,000
10. What is the ratio of expenditure on food to that on transportation?
A) 5:2
B) 2:1
C) 3:1
D) 4:1
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15 NOVEMBER 2024

1. Which of the following statements are true?
1. AFSPA was originally introduced in 1947 by the British to suppress the Quit India movement.
2. The reintroduction of AFSPA in Manipur aims to enhance security and stabilize the region.
A) Only statement 1 is true.
B) Only statement 2 is true.
C) Both statements are true.
D) Neither statement is true.
2. Which of the following statements are true?
1. Birsa Munda was born in 1875 and led the Sardari Larai movement to restore tribal land rights.
2. Janjatiya Gaurav Divas was declared by the Centre in 2020 to celebrate tribal communities’ contributions.
3. The total value of tribal welfare initiatives launched by PM Modi is estimated to be over ₹6,640 crore.
4. Birsa Munda founded a religious movement promoting polytheism.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 4
D) 3 and 4
3. Which of the following statements are true?
1. The Infosys Prize 2024 recognized six young researchers under 40 years of age.
2. The prize includes a gold medal, citation, and a prize of USD 100,000.
3. The award focuses exclusively on researchers in the field of technology.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
4.Which of the following statements are true?
1. India ranks 6th globally for both patents and trademarks.
2. India experienced a 36.4% increase in trademark applications in 2023.
3. Over 50% of India’s patent applications in 2023 were filed by residents.
4. The global patent applications in 2023 reached 3.55 million.
A) 1, 2, and 4
B) 2, 3, and 4
C) 1, 3, and 4
D) 1, 2, and 3
5.Which of the following statements are true?
1. Orbital is the longest-ever Booker-winning book.
2. Samantha Harvey is the first British author to win the Booker Prize since 2020.
A) Only statement 1 is true
B) Only statement 2 is true
C) Both statements are true
D) Neither statement is true
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MCQ CHALLENGE FOR KAS PRELIMS – DAY 52

1. A man walks 10 km north, then turns right and walks 5 km, then turns right again and walks 10 km. How far is he from his starting point?
A) 5 Km
B) 10 Km
C) 15 Km
D) 20 Km
2. A and B can complete a job together in 10 days. B alone can complete the job in 15 days. How many days would A alone take to complete the job?
A) 20 Days
B) 25 Days
C) 30 Days
D) 35 Days
3. If “ROAD” is coded as “URDG,” then how is “CARS” coded in the same way?
A) DCTU
B) ECVT
C) ECVU
D) DCTT
4. A sum of money doubles itself in 5 years at simple interest. In how many years will it triple itself at the same rate?
A) 7.5 Years
B) 10 Years
C) 12.5 Years
D) 15 Years
5. Ram and Shyam run a 100-meter race, with Ram beating Shyam by 10 meters. To make it fair, Ram starts 10 meters behind the starting line in the next race. Assuming both run at the same speed as before, who wins the second race?
A) Ram
B) Shyam
C) They Tie
D) Cannot Be Determined
6. A person invests a sum of money at compound interest, which becomes
(25/16) of itself in 3 years. What is the annual rate of interest?
A) 10%
B) 12.5%
C) 15%
D) 20%
7. A shopkeeper marks up the price of an item by 50% above the cost price and then offers a discount of 20% on the marked price. What is the percentage profit on the item?
A) 20%
B) 25%
C) 30%
D) 40%
8. A train 180 meters long is running at a speed of 54 km/hr. How long will it take to cross a platform 120 meters long?
A) 10 Seconds
B) 15 Seconds
C) 20 Seconds
D) 30 Seconds
9. A clock shows the time as 3:15. What is the angle between the hour and the minute hands?
A) 0 Degrees
B) 7.5 Degrees
C) 15 Degrees
D) 30 Degrees
10. In a certain code language, “CAT” is written as “3120” and “DOG” is written as “4157.” What is the code for “COW” in this language?
A) 3140
B) 3153
C) 3164
D) 3124
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14 NOVEMBER 2024

1.Which of the following statements are true?
1. Karnataka will be the first state in India to appoint a DGP specifically for overseeing cybercrime investigations.
2. The new Cyber Economics and Narcotics (CEN) wing in Karnataka will continue to operate under the CID.
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Which of the following statements about APAAR IDs are true?
1. APAAR IDs will integrate with DigiLocker for storing students’ academic achievements.
2. Karnataka has widely supported the NEP, leading to the adoption of APAAR IDs.
3. APAAR IDs will replace the existing Student Achievement Tracking System (SATS) in Karnataka.
4. APAAR IDs are intended to streamline student identification across different types of educational institutions.
A) Only 1 ,3, and 4
B) Only 1 and 4
C) Only 1, 2, and 3
D) Only 2 and 3
3. Which of the following statements are true?
1. H.N. Nagamohan Das is leading a commission to investigate internal reservations for Scheduled Tribe (ST) communities.
2. The commission has a two-month timeline to submit its recommendations on SC internal reservations.
3. The A.J. Sadashiva Commission previously recommended a structured sub-reservation within the SC quota for Dalit Left and Dalit Right communities.
A) Only 1 and 2 are true
B) Only 1 and 3 are true
C) Only 2 and 3 are true
D) All are true
4. Which of the following statements are NOT true about the Poorvi Prahar military exercise?
1. Poorvi Prahar includes deployment of M-777 howitzers and Rafale jets to enhance India’s operational capabilities in the eastern sector.
2. The exercise is focused across the Army, Navy, and Air Force.
A) Only statement 1 is true.
B) Only statement 2 is true.
C) Both statements 1 and 2 are true.
D) Neither statement 1 nor 2 is true.
5. Which of the following statements are true?
1. India’s tea and sugar exports contribute to economic growth but raise concerns about ecological and social sustainability.
2. Millets are more resource-intensive than tea and sugar but are less in demand for exports.
A) Only Statement 1 is true.
B) Only Statement 2 is true.
C) Both statements are true.
D) Neither statement is true.
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MCQ CHALLENGE FOR KAS PRELIMS – DAY 51

1. You are a project manager at a firm, and a critical report is due soon. One of your team members is consistently late in submitting their part. What should you do first?
A) Complete the task yourself to avoid delay.
B) Warn the team member that repeated delays will have consequences.
C) Meet with the team member to understand the reasons for the delay and offer support if needed.
D) Report the team member to upper management.
2. You are responsible for hiring a candidate for a sensitive position. You have two final candidates: one has excellent qualifications but is known to have left previous jobs quickly; the other has moderate qualifications but has stayed longer at each job. What should be your main consideration?
A) The qualifications of the candidates.
B) Their likelihood to stay in the position long-term.
C) The reputation of the candidates in the industry.
D) The need to fill the position quickly.
3. During a team meeting, you notice that some team members are not actively participating. As the leader, how would you encourage participation?
A) Allow only those who want to contribute to speak.
B) Set specific roles for each member to encourage involvement.
C) Conclude the meeting quickly to avoid wasting time.
D) Ask direct questions to those who are not participating.
4. You are in charge of a tight-budget project and encounter an unexpected expense. What is the best course of action?
A) Cut down on other project expenses.
B) Request additional funding immediately.
C) Delay the project to find more funds.
D) Analyze if the expense is essential and adjust the budget accordingly.
5. A critical client sends an urgent email outside of office hours that requires a quick response. What is the most appropriate action?
A) Respond immediately, even if it’s outside of work hours.
B) Wait until the next working day to reply.
C) Send an acknowledgment and indicate a time for a detailed response.
D) Forward the email to a colleague without replying.
6. You are leading a team, and two members have a conflict that is affecting work. What is your best response?
A) Ignore the conflict to avoid confrontation.
B) Ask both members to solve the problem on their own.
C) Mediate the conflict impartially and encourage a positive resolution.
D) Report the issue to upper management for them to handle.
7. You’re tasked with completing a project that requires multiple skills, but you are only proficient in some areas. What should you do?
A) Attempt to complete the entire project alone to improve efficiency.
B) Delegate the tasks according to team members’ strengths.
C) Delay the project until you acquire all necessary skills.
D) Request an extension from management.
8. You have a pressing deadline, but another senior colleague requests assistance on their project. How should you handle this?
A) Refuse the request to focus on your own work.
B) Attempt to complete both projects, even if it means working late.
C) Assess your workload and negotiate a feasible timeline for helping.
D) Delegate your project to a junior employee to assist your colleague.
9. A new technology could streamline operations in your team, but it requires significant investment. What should be your first step?
A) Request immediate approval for funding.
B) Conduct a cost-benefit analysis to assess its impact.
C) Wait to see if other teams adopt the technology first.
D) Reject the idea to avoid unnecessary expenses.
10. Your team consistently misses deadlines, and morale is low. What is the most effective initial approach?
A) Implement stricter deadlines and penalties.
B) Give more time for each task to avoid missed deadlines.
C) Identify the root causes for delays and address them with the team.
D) Replace team members who are underperforming.
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13 NOVEMBER 2024

1. Which of the following statements are true regarding Krishi Mela 2023?
1. The theme of the Krishi Mela 2023 is “Climate-Smart Digital Farming”.
2. The event will be held at the University of Agricultural Sciences-Dharwad.
3. The event will feature drones for coconut plucking and AI-based machinery for pesticide spraying.
A) Only 1 and 3 are true.
B) Only 2 and 3 are true.
C) Only 1 and 2 are true.
D) All 1, 2, and 3 are true.
2. Which of the following statements are true?
1. The reconstituted Inter-State Council is chaired by the Union Home Minister.
2. The council includes nine Union ministers and the Chief Ministers of all Indian states.
3. The Standing Committee of the council is headed by the Prime Minister.
4. The Inter-State Council was established under Article 263 of the Indian Constitution.
A) 1 and 3
B) 2 and 3
C) 1, 3, and 4
D) 2 and 4
3. Which of the following statements are true?
1. A recent study found that the Earth’s temperature has increased by approximately 1.5°C compared to pre-1700s levels by 2023.
2. The 2024 temperature rise is expected to be lower than the 2023 increase.
3. The Paris Agreement aims to limit global warming to 1.5°C above pre-industrial levels.
A) 2 and 3
B) 1 and 3
C) 1 and 2
D) 1, 2, and 3
4. Which of the following statements are true?
1. The Amazon Future Engineer Makerspace was launched in Maharashtra, India.
2. The Amazon Future Engineer Makerspace offers advanced programs aimed at creating tech experts through multi-month courses.
3. The Amazon Future Engineer Makerspace is in partnership with The Innovation Story.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) All of the above
5. Which of the following statements are true?
1. The missile tested is capable of striking targets 1,000 km away.
2. DRDO developed the missile without any collaboration.
3. The missile can be launched from both mobile ground launchers and ships.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1 only
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MCQ CHALLENGE FOR KAS PRELIMS – DAY 50

 1. If in a certain code language, ‘APPLE’ is written as ‘ELPPA’, how would ‘ORANGE’ be written?
A) NEGARO
B) EGNARO
C) RGONAE
D) GNROAE
 2. A is twice as old as B, and B is three years older than C. If C is 10 years old, how old is A?
A) 13
B) 20
C) 26
D) 30
 3. A train 100 meters long passes a pole in 5 seconds. What is the speed of the train in km/h?
A) 36 km/h
B) 72 km/h
C) 100 km/h
D) 144 km/h
4. In a sequence of numbers, 2, 6, 12, 20, what is the next number?
A) 30
B) 24
C) 28
D) 32
5. Which word will come third if arranged alphabetically?
A) ZEBRA
B) APPLE
C) ORANGE
D) GRAPE
6. Pointing to a man, Julie said, “His mother is the only daughter of my mother.” How is Julie related to the man?
A) Mother
B) Aunt
C) Sister
D) Grandmother
7. If 4 people can paint a wall in 10 days, how many days will it take 8 people to paint the same wall?
A) 2
B) 5
C) 10
D) 20
8. What comes next in the series? 5, 11, 23, 47, __
A) 59
B) 61
C) 95
D) 95
9. A man walked 30 meters towards the South. Then he turned to his left and walked 40 meters. He then turned to his left and walked 30 meters. Which direction is he now facing?
A) North
B) South
C) East
D) West
10. If CAT = 24, BAT = 22, and HAT = 28, then RAT = ?
A) 30
B) 26
C) 24
D) 34
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MCQ CHALLENGE FOR KAS PRELIMS – DAY 49

1. If all roses are flowers and some flowers fade quickly, which of the following is true?
A) All roses fade quickly.
B) Some roses may fade quickly.
C) No flowers fade quickly.
D) All flowers are roses.
2. In a certain code language, “EARTH” is written as “QYVHI.” How would “WATER” be written in that code?
A) YUVFI
B) VZSHI
C) QUTVI
D) XFSVI
3. A group of people consists of 5 doctors, 7 engineers, and 3 teachers. If one person is chosen at random, what is the probability that the person is a doctor?
A)1/3
B)5/15
C)1/5
D)1/4
4. If Liza is taller than Maria, and Maria is shorter than John, which of the following must be true?
A) Liza is taller than John.
B) John is taller than Liza.
C) John is taller than Maria.
D) Maria is taller than Liza.
5. Find the next number in the series: 2, 6, 12, 20, ___.
A) 30
B) 24
C) 28
D) 26
6. If “PENCIL” is coded as “SFMFIL,” how is “ERASER” coded?
A) HUCUHU
B) HUCTCT
C) HUCUCT
D) GTVTGT
7. Statements: All mangoes are fruits. Some fruits are sweet. Conclusion:
I. Some mangoes are sweet.
II. All fruits are mangoes.
Which conclusion follows?
A) Only I
B) Only II
C) Both I and II
D) Neither I nor II
8. If A is the son of B, and B is the sister of C, what is C’s relationship to A?
A) C is A’s uncle or aunt.
B) C is A’s mother.
C) C is A’s sister.
D) C is A’s cousin.
9. In a row of children, Ravi is 8th from the left, and Sita is 7th from the right. If there are 15 children in total, how many children are between Ravi and Sita?
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3
10. Complete the analogy: Book is to Library as Medicine is to ___.
A) Hospital
B) Doctor
C) Pharmacy
D) Patient
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11 NOVEMBER 2024

1. Which of the following statements are true?
1. The Karnataka Labour Department is proposing a six-day annual paid menstrual leave for the private sector.
2. Bihar was the first state to introduce menstrual leave for both private and government employees.
A) Only statement 1 is true.
B) Only statement 2 is true.
C) Both statements 1 and 2 are true.
D) Neither statement 1 nor statement 2 is true.
2. Which of the following statements are true?
1. The Ashwamedha AC buses will cover routes within a 1000-km radius of Bengaluru.
2. The buses will feature comfortable seating, air-conditioning, and charging ports.
3. Fares for the Ashwamedha AC buses will be higher than ordinary buses but offer added comfort.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) All of the above
3. Which of the following statements are true?
1. PyPIM combines Python programming with PIM technology to enable data processing directly in memory.
2. PyPIM requires constant data transfers between memory and CPU for computation.
A) Only statement 1 is true.
B) Only statement 2 is true.
C) Both statements are true.
D) Neither statement is true.
4. Which of the following statements are true?
1. France is evaluating India’s Pinaka rocket system to replace its M270 Lance-Roquettes Unitaire systems.
2. Armenia is the only country that has expressed interest in the Pinaka rocket system.
A) Only statement 1 is true
B) Only statement 2 is true
C) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true
D) Neither statement 1 nor statement 2 is true
5. Which of the following statements are true?
1. India’s OSOWOG initiative aims to create a transnational grid supplying power primarily from fossil fuels.
2. The OSOWOG initiative is in advanced discussions with several countries, including Oman, UAE, and Singapore, for cross-border electricity transmission lines.
A) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false
B) Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true
C) Both statements are true
D) Both statements are false
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