21 DECEMBER 2024
1.Which of the following statements are true?
A) The Pan Supari Bazaar was a famous marketplace for gold and precious metals during the Vijayanagar period.
B) The excavation of the Pan Supari Bazaar started in 2024.
C) The excavation is taking place in the southern region of Hampi.
D) A 15th-century bronze or copper coin was discovered at the site.
2.Which of the following statements are true?
1. The twin-tube tunnel roads will cover 46 km at a cost of ₹40,000 crore.
2. The total cost of the Bengaluru traffic management plan is estimated at ₹30,000 crore.
A) Only statement 1 is true
B) Only statement 2 is true
C) Both statements are true
D) Neither statement is true
3.Which of the following statements are true?
1. The new submarine cable systems will connect India to Asia and Africa.
2. Reliance Jio, with investment from China Mobile, owns the undersea cable systems.
3. The India Asia Xpress (IAX) connects Chennai and Mumbai with countries like France and Greece.
4. India is focusing on the Bay of Bengal and South China Sea regions for a stronger maritime cable network presence.
A) 1 and 2
B) 2 and 4
C) 3 and 4
D) 1 and 3
4.Which of the following statements are true?
1. Services exports surpassed goods exports for the first time in November 2024.
2. India’s merchandise trade deficit reached a record $20.84 billion in November 2024.
3. Gold imports in November 2024 were over three times higher than in November 2023.
4. The rupee strengthened to 80 against the US dollar in November 2024.
A) 1 and 4
B) 2 and 4
C) 1 and 3
D) 3 and 4
5.Which of the following statements are true?
1. The National Institute of Siddha (NIS) set a Guinness World Record by providing Varmam therapy to 567 individuals simultaneously.
2. Varmam therapy is a core aspect of Western medicine, focused on pain management.
3. The United States has set a target to reduce its emissions by 61-66% below 2005 levels by 2035.
4. Siddha medicine originated in North India around 10,000 BC.
A) 3 and 4
B) 2 and 4
C) 1 and 2
D) 1 and 3
MCQ CHALLENGE FOR KAS PRELIMS – DAY 83
1. Which of the following statements about India’s workforce demographics are true?
1. India’s workforce has a median age of approximately 28 years.
2. By 2030, India is projected to have over 2 billion working-age adults.
3. India faces challenges in employment generation and skill development due to its youthful workforce.
A) 1 and 2
B) 2 and 3
C) 1 and 3
D) 1,2,3
2.Which of the following statements about sectoral distribution in India are true?
1. About 41.19% of the workforce is engaged in agriculture.
2. The service sector accounts for 26.18% of employment.
3. The industry sector employs approximately 26.18% of the labor force.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
3.Which of the following statements about the unorganized sector in India are true?
1. Over 94% of workers were in the unorganized sector in 2020.
2. The unorganized sector is characterized by formal contracts and benefits.
3. Activities in this sector include street vending and home-based industries.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
4.Which of the following statements about unemployment and skill development are true?
1. The unemployment rate in urban areas for individuals aged 15 and above declined to 7.2% in late 2022.
2. Skill development is crucial due to rapid technological advancements.
3. Informal employment in India provides robust wage security.
A) 1 and 2
B) 2 and 3
C) 1 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
5.Which of the following HRM trends in 2024 are true?
1. Artificial Intelligence is enhancing HR efficiency.
2. Hybrid work models improve productivity and work-life balance.
3. Organizations are reducing focus on employee well-being initiatives.
A) 1 and 2
B) 2 and 3
C) 1 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
6.Which of the following statements about the HR technology market in India are true?
1. The hiring technology segment was valued at $480 million in 2021.
2. The learning and development segment is estimated at $1.1 billion.
3. The overall HR technology market size was approximately $1.1 billion in 2021.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
7.Which of the following statements about compensation trends are true?
1. The gender pay gap saw men receiving an average pay increase of 7.2% in 2022.
2. HR managers earn an average annual salary of approximately INR 698,197.
3. Entry-level HR positions in India earn around INR 1,000,000 annually.
A) 1 and 2
B) 2 and 3
C) 1 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
8.Which of the following statements about employment policies are true?
1. Efforts are underway to formalize employment for better labor rights.
2. Technological integration is essential for streamlining HR processes.
3. Employee-centric policies are being deprioritized in India.
A) 1 and 2
B) 2 and 3
C) 1 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
9.Which of the following statements about diversity and inclusion are true?
1. Organizations recognize the importance of varied perspectives for innovation.
2. Diversity and inclusion are deprioritized by Indian companies.
3. Inclusion initiatives are seen as crucial for business success.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
10.Which of the following future outlooks for HR in India are true?
1. Skill development programs are vital for equipping the workforce with future-ready skills.
2. Informal employment is expected to grow without formalization efforts.
3. Advanced technologies will play a significant role in productivity enhancement.
A) 1 and 2
B) 2 and 3
C) 1 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
20 DECEMBER 2024
1.Which of the following statements are true?
1. Himanshi Indulal Shelat was born in Surat, Gujarat, in 1947.
2. The selection committee for the award was chaired by Agrahara Krishnamurthy.
3. The Kuvempu Rashtriya Puraskar includes a cash prize of Rs 5 lakh.
A) 1 and 3
B) 2 and 3
C) 1 and 2
D) All of the above
2.Which of the following statements are true?
1. Sacred groves are primarily found in states like Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Karnataka, and Maharashtra.
2. The Supreme Court has directed the government for Regular monitoring of sacred groves with flexibility for natural growth
3. The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, will be leveraged to protect sacred groves.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) All of the above
3.Which of the following statements are true?
1. The JNCASR team used gold and silver to create flexible plasmonic devices.
2. Scandium Nitride (ScN) films are cost-effective and support near-infrared wavelength plasmonics.
3. Flexible plasmonic devices can only be used in rigid applications.
4. Traditional plasmonic materials are flexible and inexpensive.
A) 1 and 4
B) 2 and 4
C) 2 and 3
D) 1 and 2
4.Which of the following statements are true about INS Nirdeshak?
1. It is the third ship of the Survey Vessel (Large) project.
2. It is equipped with Multi Beam Echo Sounders and Autonomous Underwater Vehicles (AUV).
3. It was built by the Indian Navy.
4. It promotes India’s stance on supporting allies without seeking returns.
A) 1 and 3
B) 2 and 3
C) 1 and 4
D) 2 and 4
5.Which of the following statements are true?
1. The Sahitya Akademi Award was established in 1965.
2. The Sahitya Akademi recognizes works in 22 Indian languages, English, and Rajasthani.
A) Only statement 1 is true
B) Only statement 2 is true
C) Both statements are true
D) Neither statement is true
MCQ CHALLENGE FOR KAS PRELIMS – DAY 82
1: Which of the Following Statements Are True?
- Forests are vital as habitat and environmental regulators.
- Forests only provide recreational benefits to humans.
- Forests contribute to economic development.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) All statements
2: Which of the Following Statements Are True?
- Forest management aims to sustainably manage resources.
- It primarily focuses on economic gain over conservation.
- It enhances public quality of life while conserving resources.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) All statements
3: Which of the Following Statements Are True?
- Forests cover about 30% of the global land area.
- Europe has the lowest forest cover at 3%.
- Latin America has the highest forest cover globally.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) All statements
4: Which of the Following Statements Are True?
- As of 2019, forests covered 21.67% of India’s total area.
- India’s forest coverage is higher than the global average.
- Pastures cover more area than forests in India.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) All statements
5: Which of the Following Statements Are True?
- Timber includes hardwoods like teak and mahogany.
- Softwood is mainly used for furniture production.
- Karnataka is a major producer of fuelwood.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) All statements
6: Which of the Following Statements Are True?
- Sabai grass is used for papermaking.
- Bamboo is commonly referred to as “poor man’s timber.”
- Cane is mainly used for producing fuel.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) All statements
7: Which of the Following Statements Are True?
- Tanning materials are widely used in the leather industry.
- Dyes like red sander and wattle bark are extracted from plants.
- Tanning and dye materials are primarily derived from animal products.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) All statements
8: Which of the Following Statements Are True?
- Sandalwood oil is used in pharmaceuticals.
- Gum is derived from the injury to tree stems.
- Resins are primarily used for food preparation.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) All statements
9: Which of the Following Statements Are True?
- Fibers are coarse and used for rope-making.
- Tendu leaves are a key ingredient for making tobacco.
- Lac is derived from plant secretions.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) All statements
10: Which of the Following Statements Are True?
- Forest-related activities employ approximately 3.5 million people in India.
- Forests contribute to 5% of India’s government revenue.
- Forests generate significant foreign exchange.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) All statements
MCQ CHALLENGE FOR KAS PRELIMS – DAY 81
1. Which of the Following Statements are True?
1. India has 18% of the global population but only 4% of the world’s renewable water resources.
2. India receives an average annual precipitation of 3,000 BCM.
3. Artificial freshwater sources include treated wastewater and desalinated seawater.
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
2. Which of the Following Statements are True?
1. Surface water resources in India include rivers, lakes, and tanks.
2. Only 60% of India’s annual river basin flow is usable.
3. Ganga, Brahmaputra, and Barak rivers hold 60% of India’s surface water.
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
3. Which of the Following Statements are True?
1. India has over 10,000 rivers and tributaries exceeding 1.6 km in length.
2. The total replenishable groundwater resources in India are approximately 432 km³.
3. The Ganga-Brahmaputra basins account for 75% of India’s groundwater resources.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
4. Which of the Following Statements are True?
1. India has built approximately 5,000 major or medium dams and barrages.
2. The total storage capacity of India’s dams is 170 BCM.
3. Dams are exclusively used for hydroelectric power generation.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
5. Which of the Following Statements are True?
1. India’s irrigation sector consumes 78% of its water resources.
2. Groundwater contributes to 80% of household water needs.
3. The industrial sector uses 10% of India’s water resources.
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
6. Which of the Following Statements are True?
1. Water availability below 1,700 m³/person/year is considered water scarcity.
2. India’s per capita water availability was 5,200 m³ in 1951.
3. By 2050, per capita water availability in India is projected to decline to 1,191 m³.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
7. Which of the Following Statements are True?
1. 70% of India’s surface water resources are polluted.
2. Agricultural runoff is a significant contributor to water pollution.
3. Groundwater provides 50% of drinking water in India.
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
8. Which of the Following Statements are True?
1. Women in 54% of rural households walk between 200 meters to 5 km daily for water.
2. India’s groundwater resources are evenly distributed across all states.
3. Overuse of groundwater has led to water crises in several Indian villages.
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
9. Which of the Following Statements are True?
1. Freshwater constitutes only 3% of the total global water resources.
2. Two-thirds of global freshwater is frozen in glaciers and ice caps.
3. Groundwater forms the majority of unfrozen freshwater.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
10. Which of the Following Statements are True?
1. Brackish water from lagoons is used for irrigation in coastal states like Kerala and Odisha.
2. Lagoon water cannot be used for fishing.
3. India’s coastline facilitates the formation of various lagoons and lakes.
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
18 DECEMBER 2024
1.Which of the following statements are true about the committee headed by M. Govinda Rao?
1. The committee is exploring the use of satellite imagery developed by NIAS.
2. The committee is solely focused on land development, not economic growth.
3. A team of statisticians is comparing the findings of the Nanjundappa report with the current economic scenario.
4. The committee was formed immediately after the Nanjundappa report in the early 2000s.
A) 1 and 3
B) 2 and 4
C) 1, 3, and 4
D) 2 and 3
2.Which of the following statements are true?
1. Karnataka’s Global Capability Centre policy focuses on attracting investments in Bengaluru only.
2. The state has projected a revenue deficit of ₹27,354 crore for 2024-25.
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2
3.Which of the following statements are true?
1. SARAT was developed to assist in rescue operations only on land.
2. SARAT Version 2 has enhanced visualizations and improved search area expansion.
3. SARAT considers only the time of the last known location, ignoring environmental factors.
4. The tool supports multiple coastal state languages to assist local fishermen.
A) 1 and 2
B) 3 and 4
C) 2 and 4
D) 1 and 3
4.Which of the following recommendations for the restructuring of NTA is correct?
1. The NTA will introduce multi-session testing only for NEET-UG.
2. The NTA will appoint a Director-General with a rank of Additional Secretary or higher.
3. The NTA’s restructuring plan involves reducing its governance to a single leadership team.
A) Only Statement 1 is true
B) Only Statement 2 is true
C) Only Statement 3 is true
D) Statements 1 and 2 are true
5.Which of the following statements are true regarding minority rights in India?
1. The Indian Constitution defines “minority” explicitly.
2. Article 350 B mandates the appointment of a special officer for linguistic minorities.
3. The TMA Pai Foundation (2002) judgment established clear criteria for defining minority institutions.
A) 1 and 2
B) 2 and 3
C) 1 and 3
D) 2 only
MCQ CHALLENGE FOR KAS PRELIMS – DAY 80
1. Which of the following statements are true?
Which of the following statements about minerals in India is true?
1. Minerals in India are non-renewable resources essential for the country’s development.
2. The Indian mining industry began during the Mughal era.
3. India has an infinite supply of minerals to support its industries.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
2. Which of the following statements are true?
Which of the following is true regarding India’s mineral production in 2023-24?
1. The Index of Mineral Production grew by 7.51%.
2. Metallic minerals accounted for 90.3% of the total value.
3. The total value of production reached ₹2,41,239 crore.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
3. Which of the following statements are true?
Which of the following statements about metallic minerals in India is true?
1. Metallic minerals contributed ₹98,946 crore in value.
2. Zinc and chromite are the highest contributors among metallic minerals.
3. Odisha is the leading state in producing iron ore.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
4. Which of the following statements are true?
Which of the following is true about India’s self-sufficiency in minerals?
1. India is self-sufficient in aluminium, zinc, and lead.
2. Bauxite and magnesite are entirely imported to meet demand.
3. India imports uncut diamonds for domestic industries.
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
5. Which of the following statements are true?
Which of the following is correct regarding India’s Gross Value Added (GVA) from mining?
1. GVA from mining grew by 7.1% in 2023-24.
2. GVA at 2011-12 prices was ₹3,37,623 crore.
3. Mining contributed over 10% to India’s GDP in 2023-24.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
6. Which of the following statements are true?
Which of the following is true regarding India’s mineral pricing trends in 2023-24?
1. The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) for minerals increased to 217.7.
2. The WPI rise reflects inflation in mineral prices.
3. The WPI in the previous year was 210.5.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
7. Which of the following statements are true?
Which of the following states showed the highest growth in mineral production value in 2023-24?
1. Maharashtra achieved a growth rate of 64.3%.
2. Odisha led in mineral production value.
3. Karnataka surpassed Maharashtra in growth rate.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
8. Which of the following statements are true?
Which of the following is true about India’s international mineral rankings?
1. India is the 2nd largest producer of steel globally.
2. India ranks 3rd in zinc production worldwide.
3. India ranks 1st in global aluminium production.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
9. Which of the following statements are true?
Which of the following is true regarding iron ore production in India?
1. Iron ore production value was ₹98,946 crore in 2023-24.
2. Odisha is the leading state for iron ore production.
3. Karnataka produces more iron ore than Odisha.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
10. Which of the following statements are true?
Which of the following is true about sustainability in Indian mining?
1. Mining activities are evenly distributed across Indian states.
2. Sustainable mining practices are critical for long-term growth.
3. Effective conservation strategies are essential for India’s economic development.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
MCQ CHALLENGE FOR KAS PRELIMS – DAY 79
1. Which of the following statements are true?
1. India’s agriculture accounts for about 17-18% of its GDP.
2. Over 50% of India’s workforce is engaged in agriculture.
3. The total net sown area in India is approximately 328.7 million hectares.
a) Only 1 and 2
b) Only 1 and 3
c) Only 2 and 3
d) All 1, 2, and 3
2. Which of the following statements are true?
1. India has 15 agro-climatic zones.
2. The Rabi season crops are grown during June-October.
3. Desert soil is suitable for growing drought-resistant crops like bajra.
a) Only 1 and 3
b) Only 2 and 3
c) Only 1 and 2
d) All 1, 2, and 3
3. Which of the following statements are true?
1. Rice is the major crop grown in Punjab, West Bengal, and Tamil Nadu.
2. Laterite soils are ideal for growing cotton and millets.
3. India is the largest producer of pulses globally.
a) Only 1 and 2
b) Only 1 and 3
c) Only 2 and 3
d) All 1, 2, and 3
4. Which of the following statements are true?
1. The Indo-Gangetic plains are suitable for growing rice, wheat, and sugarcane.
2. Micro-irrigation systems include drip and sprinkler systems.
3. Rainfed agriculture covers about 80% of cultivated land in India.
a) Only 1 and 2
b) Only 1 and 3
c) Only 2 and 3
d) All 1, 2, and 3
5. Which of the following statements are true?
1. India has a total geographical area of approximately 140 million hectares.
2. Groundwater irrigation is widely used in the Indo-Gangetic plains.
3. Soil erosion is caused by deforestation and overgrazing.
a) Only 1 and 2
b) Only 2 and 3
c) Only 1 and 3
d) All 1, 2, and 3
6. Which of the following statements are true?
1. India is the largest producer of milk globally.
2. The major plantation crops include tea, coffee, and rubber.
3. Red and yellow soils are found in northern India.
a) Only 1 and 2
b) Only 1 and 3
c) Only 2 and 3
d) All 1, 2, and 3
7. Which of the following statements are true?
1. Water consumption for irrigation accounts for over 80% of India’s water usage.
2. Black soil is also known as regur soil and is suitable for growing cotton.
3. Rainfed agriculture relies heavily on canal irrigation systems.
a) Only 1 and 2
b) Only 1 and 3
c) Only 2 and 3
d) All 1, 2, and 3
8. Which of the following statements are true?
1. Cropping intensity in India is improving due to better irrigation practices.
2. Alluvial soil is highly fertile and found in the Indo-Gangetic plains.
3. Laterite soil is ideal for growing rice and wheat.
a) Only 1 and 2
b) Only 1 and 3
c) Only 2 and 3
d) All 1, 2, and 3
9. Which of the following statements are true?
1. Coastal plains are ideal for growing coconut and spices.
2. The Zaid season is characterized by the cultivation of crops like wheat and barley.
3. India is one of the largest producers of cereals and food grains globally.
a) Only 1 and 2
b) Only 1 and 3
c) Only 2 and 3
d) All 1, 2, and 3
10. Which of the following statements are true?
1. India’s fisheries sector includes both inland and marine fisheries.
2. Mountain soils are suitable for growing horticultural crops like apples and spices.
3. Canal irrigation in India primarily relies on rivers like the Ganga, Godavari, and Narmada.
a) Only 1 and 2
b) Only 1 and 3
c) Only 2 and 3
d) All 1, 2, and 3
16 DECEMBER 2024
1. Which of the following statements are true about Jalvahak Scheme?
1. The Jalvahak Scheme is aimed at boosting road transportation for cargo movement.
2. The scheme offers up to a 35% reimbursement on operating expenses for cargo transport.
3. Regular cargo services are scheduled from Haldia on National Waterways 1 and 2.
A) 1 and 2
B) 2 and 3
C) 1 and 3
D) All of the above
2.Which of the following statements are true?
1. The IAO in Hanle, Ladakh, is the ideal site for space-based quantum communication.
2. Mount Abu in Rajasthan is identified as the best location for quantum communication.
3. Quantum Key Distribution uses traditional cryptographic methods for communication.
4. The IAO’s cold and dry environment is ideal for quantum signal transmission.
A) 1 and 3
B) 1 and 4
C) 2 and 3
D) 3 and 4
3.Which of the following statements are true about the Hyperloop project at IIT Madras?
1. The project is led by the Avishkar Hyperloop team at IIT Madras.
2. The Hyperloop technology was first introduced by IIT Madras in 2012.
3. The test track completed at IIT Madras is 410 meters long.
4. The Hyperloop technology can reach speeds of up to 1,100 km/h.
A) 1, 3, 4
B) 2, 3, 4
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 3
4.Which of the following statements are true?
1. Britain is the 12th country to join the CPTPP.
2. The CPTPP was originally called the Trans-Pacific Partnership (TPP) but was renamed after the US withdrew.
3. The UK’s membership in the CPTPP will reduce its annual trade value by £2.5 billion.
A) 1, 2, and 3
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1 and 2
5.Which of the following statements are true?
A) COP29 approved standards for carbon markets, but they are not designed to reduce emissions.
B) Carbon markets allow the buying and selling of carbon credits, which represent a specific amount of CO2 emissions.
C) Carbon credits are not traded in carbon markets.
D) The carbon credit system has been ineffective in reducing carbon emissions globally.
MCQ CHALLENGE FOR KAS PRELIMS – DAY 78
1. Which of the following statements are true about coal in India?
1. Coal is mainly found in Gondwana and Tertiary deposits.
2. Lignite is found in the states of Odisha and Bihar.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Which of the following statements are true about petroleum in India?
1. Petroleum is referred to as “liquid gold” due to its scarcity and diverse uses.
2. Key oil fields are located in the Krishna-Godavari Basin and West Bengal.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Which of the following statements are true about natural gas?
1. Major natural gas reserves in India are found in Mumbai High and Cambay Basin.
2. Natural gas is used only as a cooking fuel in households.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. Which of the following statements are true about nuclear energy in India?
1. Uranium is found in Singhbhum (Jharkhand) and Rajasthan.
2. Thorium is extracted from monazite sands in Maharashtra.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
5. Which of the following statements are true about solar energy?
1. Solar energy is harnessed through photovoltaic cells.
2. Gujarat and Rajasthan have high potential for solar energy development.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
6. Which of the following statements are true about wind energy?
1. Wind energy is an inexhaustible source of power.
2. Major wind energy centers are located in Tamil Nadu and West Bengal.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
7. Which of the following statements are true about tidal energy?
1. Tidal energy potential is high along the western coast of India.
2. Tidal energy is extensively used in Gujarat and Maharashtra.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
8. Which of the following statements are true about geothermal energy?
1. Geothermal energy is generated from Earth’s internal heat.
2. A geothermal energy plant is operational in Manikaran, Himachal Pradesh.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
9. Which of the following statements are true about bio-energy?
1. Bio-energy is derived from agricultural residues and waste.
2. Okhla in Delhi is an example of a bio-energy plant.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
10. Which of the following statements are true about non-conventional energy sources?
1. Non-conventional energy sources include solar, wind, and geothermal energy.
2. These sources are exhaustible and lead to environmental pollution.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
MCQ CHALLENGE FOR KAS PRELIMS – DAY 77
1.At 4:00 PM, what is the angle between the hour and minute hands of the clock?
(A) 120°
(B) 130°
(C) 140°
(D) 150°
2.The minute hand of a clock moves 6° per minute. How many degrees does the hour hand move in 10 minutes?
(A) 2°
(B) 3°
(C) 5°
(D) 1°
3.At what time between 3:00 and 4:00 will the hour and minute hands coincide?
(A) 3:15
(B) 3:16
(C) 3:17
(D) 3:18
4.If the hour hand is at 8 and the minute hand is at 12, what is the time?
(A) 8:00
(B) 8:15
(C) 8:30
(D) 8:45
5.A clock gains 10 seconds every hour. How many seconds will it gain in a day?
(A) 120 seconds
(B) 180 seconds
(C) 240 seconds
(D) 300 seconds
6.A clock shows 6:10. The correct time is 6:00. How much time does the clock gain in an hour if this error is consistent?
(A) 5 minutes
(B) 10 minutes
(C) 15 minutes
(D) 20 minutes
7.What is the reflex angle between the hands of the clock at 7:10?
(A) 120°
(B) 230°
(C) 240°
(D) 250°
8.How many times in 24 hours do the hour and minute hands overlap?
(A) 12
(B) 22
(C) 24
(D) 44
9.At what time between 9:00 and 10:00 will the hands of the clock be in opposite directions?
(A) 9:45
(B) 9:50
(C) 9:55
(D) 9:48
10.A clock strikes every hour. If it takes 15 seconds to strike 6 o’clock, how long will it take to strike 12 o’clock?
(A) 25 seconds
(B) 30 seconds
(C) 35 seconds
(D) 55 seconds
MCQ CHALLENGE FOR KAS PRELIMS – DAY 76
1. Which of the following statements are true about pre-independence Indian agriculture?
1. Agriculture was largely subsistence-based.
2. The zamindari system promoted agricultural growth.
3. Limited irrigation systems were developed in select regions.
A. Only 1 and 2
B. Only 1 and 3
C. Only 2 and 3
D. All 1, 2, and 3
2. Which of the following are key components of the Green Revolution?
1. Introduction of high-yield variety (HYV) seeds.
2. Use of traditional farming techniques.
3. Expansion of irrigation facilities.
A. Only 1 and 2
B. Only 2 and 3
C. Only 1 and 3
D. All 1, 2, and 3
3. Which of the following achievements are attributed to the Green Revolution?
1. Doubling of food grain production.
2. Elimination of environmental degradation.
3. Surplus food grain stocks for export.
A. Only 1 and 2
B. Only 1 and 3
C. Only 2 and 3
D. All 1, 2, and 3
4. Which of the following are advancements in precision agriculture?
1. Use of GPS and GIS technologies.
2. Introduction of organic fertilizers.
3. Deployment of drones for field mapping.
A. Only 1 and 2
B. Only 1 and 3
C. Only 2 and 3
D. All 1, 2, and 3
5. Which of the following statements are true regarding BT cotton?
1. It was introduced to combat pests like bollworm.
2. It is a genetically modified crop.
3. It has no controversies associated with it.
A. Only 1 and 2
B. Only 2 and 3
C. Only 1 and 3
D. All 1, 2, and 3
6. Which of the following are examples of micro-irrigation technologies?
1. Drip irrigation.
2. Sprinkler systems.
3. Canal modernization.
A. Only 1 and 2
B. Only 2 and 3
C. Only 1 and 3
D. All 1, 2, and 3
7. Which of the following institutions support agricultural research and extension?
1. Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR).
2. Krishi Vigyan Kendras (KVKs).
3. Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
A. Only 1 and 2
B. Only 2 and 3
C. Only 1 and 3
D. All 1, 2, and 3
8. Which of the following are features of the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY)?
1. It provides crop insurance against natural calamities.
2. It guarantees a fixed income to farmers.
3. It aims to increase farmers’ financial security.
A. Only 1 and 2
B. Only 1 and 3
C. Only 2 and 3
D. All 1, 2, and 3
9. Which of the following challenges impact Indian agriculture?
1. Climate change.
2. Fragmented landholdings.
3. Abundant post-harvest infrastructure.
A. Only 1 and 2
B. Only 2 and 3
C. Only 1 and 3
D. All 1, 2, and 3
10. Which of the following are key suggestions for the way forward in Indian agriculture?
1. Expanding the use of IoT and AI in farming.
2. Promoting collaborative research globally.
3. Eliminating subsidies for all farmers.
A. Only 1 and 2
B. Only 2 and 3
C. Only 1 and 3
D. All 1, 2, and 3
12 DECEMBER 2024
1. Which of the following statements about Program Vasundhara are true?
1. It is a five-year initiative launched by American Express.
2. The program involves constructing a rainwater harvesting structure in Bengaluru.
3. Solar solutions are part of the initiatives in Gurugram.
4. It focuses solely on reforestation in rural areas.
A) 1 and 3
B) 2 and 3
C) 1 and 4
D) 2 and 4
2.Which of the following statements about the PM POSHAN Scheme is true?
1. The PM POSHAN Scheme replaced the Mid-Day Meal Scheme in 2020.
2. It covers students from Classes 1 to 8 and Balvatika in government and government-aided schools.
3. The Centre does not provide any support for foodgrain costs.
4. Tithi Bhojan is a concept of providing free textbooks under the scheme.
A) 1 and 2
B) 2 and 4
C) Only 2
D) 1, 2, and 3
3.Which of the following statements are true regarding the Inflation Expectations Survey and RBI forecasts?
1. The median inflation perception rose to 8.4% in November 2024.
2. Inflation forecasts for Q4 FY2025 were revised to 5.7%.
3. Rising food prices and housing costs contributed to increased inflation expectations.
4. The RBI’s revised overall inflation forecast for FY2025 is 4.8%.
A) 1, 3, and 4
B) 1, 2, and 4
C) 2 and 4 only
D) All of the above
4.Which of the following challenges in haemophilia treatment are addressed by the new gene therapy?
1. The need for frequent Factor VIII injections.
2. High treatment costs over time.
3. Use of adenovirus vectors requiring immune suppression.
4. Reduction in annual bleeding incidents.
A) All of the above
B) 1 and 2
C) 1, 2, and 4
D) 2, 3, and 4
5.Which of the following statements about the BLE Gateway System is true?
1. The BLE Gateway system can manage up to 100 BLE nodes simultaneously.
2. It offers data transmission over a range of up to 2 km in line-of-sight conditions.
3. The system includes features like humidity/temperature sensors and external RTC.
4. The BLE Gateway system relies solely on wired connectivity for data transmission.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 4
D) 3 and 4
MCQ CHALLENGE FOR KAS PRELIMS – DAY 75
1. Which of the following statements are true?
a) Landholding refers only to a single piece of land owned by a person.
b) Land fragmentation in India is primarily due to population growth and inheritance laws.
c) The Ryotwari system was one of the land tenure systems at the time of independence.
d) All of the above.
2. Which of the following statements are true?
a) The average size of land holdings in India is large enough to support modern farming techniques.
b) Fragmentation of land holdings in India does not affect agricultural productivity.
c) Small land holdings in India are economically viable due to high population density.
d) None of the above.
3. Which of the following statements are true?
a) Land tenancy refers to temporary possession of land by a tenant.
b) In India, land tenure systems are static and unchanging.
c) The relationship between the landlord, the cultivator, and the government is known as the land tenure system.
d) All of the above.
4. Which of the following statements are true?
a) Fragmentation of land holdings results in increased agricultural productivity.
b) Fragmentation leads to the wastage of cultivated land due to boundaries, footpaths, and hedges.
c) Fragmentation does not impact the use of modern agricultural equipment.
d) None of the above.
5. Which of the following statements are true?
a) Consolidation of land holdings helps in increasing agricultural production.
b) Consolidation always happens voluntarily without any legal frameworks.
c) Voluntary consolidation began in India in 1921 in Punjab.
d) Both a and c.
6. Which of the following statements are true?
a) Voluntary consolidation of land holdings is slower due to resistance from landowners.
b) Compulsory consolidation forces all farmers in a village to consolidate their holdings, even without majority consent.
c) Maharashtra was the first state to enact compulsory consolidation laws.
d) All of the above.
7. Which of the following statements are true?
a) Ceiling on land holdings aims to reduce inequality in land ownership.
b) Ceiling on land holdings is not applicable to dry land areas.
c) Ceiling on land holdings helps in reducing agricultural employment opportunities.
d) Both a and b.
8. Which of the following statements are true?
a) Ceiling on land holdings ensures that large landowners cannot acquire more land in the future.
b) Ceiling laws have not been implemented in most Indian states.
c) Ceiling on land holdings encourages intensive cultivation by small farmers.
d) Both a and c.
9. Which of the following statements are true?
a) The distribution of landholdings in India is highly unequal, with large landowners holding a significant share.
b) Land reforms in Kerala, West Bengal, and Tripura have significantly reduced large land holdings.
c) In Rajasthan, large landholdings are mostly associated with fertile land.
d) Both a and b.
10. Which of the following statements are true?
a) The Kumarappa Committee recommended land distribution, tenancy reforms, and minimum agricultural wages.
b) Large landholders are the primary beneficiaries of land reforms in India.
c) The government aims to reduce agricultural inequality by redistributing land to small farmers and landless laborers.
d) Both a and c.
MCQ CHALLENGE FOR KAS PRELIMS – DAY 74
1. Which of the following statements are true about agriculture in Karnataka?
1. Karnataka has 10 agro-climatic zones based on rainfall, soil type, and topography.
2. Karnataka receives most of its rainfall from the retreating Northeast monsoon.
3. Finger millet is a prominent crop promoted under the Raitha Siri Yojane.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, and 3
2. Which of the following initiatives support Karnataka’s farmers?
1. Raitha Siri Yojane promotes minor millets with financial incentives.
2. VARUNA MITRA provides weather advisories for optimized farming.
3. The Agriculture Export Policy targets districts like Kodagu and Chikkamagaluru for coffee clusters.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2, and 3
3. Which of the following are challenges faced by Karnataka’s agricultural sector?
1. Fragmentation of land holdings.
2. Declining soil health and drought-prone areas.
3. Lack of access to international agricultural markets.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2, and 3
4. Which of the following are benefits of the Agriculture Export Policy in Karnataka?
1. It focuses on high-value crops like rose onions and pepper.
2. It aims to double farm exports by 2025.
3. It includes funding for pre- and post-harvest management.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2, and 3
5. Which of the following crops are significant under Raitha Siri Yojane?
1. Ragi (finger millet).
2. Little millet.
3. Sugarcane.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2, and 3
6. Which of the following statements are true about the VARUNA MITRA system?
1. It provides localized agro-meteorological advisories.
2. It requires internet access for farmers.
3. It issues alerts on extreme weather events and crop pests.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2, and 3
7. Which of the following statements reflect Karnataka’s agricultural export potential?
1. It includes indigenous and organic products in its export portfolio.
2. Clusters for pomegranate cultivation are established in Mysuru.
3. The policy primarily focuses on exporting processed foods.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2, and 3
8. Which of the following are features of Karnataka’s agricultural challenges?
1. Poor market access for small-scale farmers.
2. High dependency on rain-fed farming.
3. Over-reliance on traditional cereal crops.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2, and 3
9. Which of the following measures promote sustainable farming in Karnataka?
1. Financial incentives for drought-resistant crops.
2. Promoting water-intensive cash crops in dry zones.
3. Encouraging the use of organic manures and millets.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2, and 3
10. Which of the following are true about Karnataka’s Raitha Siri Yojane?
1. It focuses on crop diversification for rural resilience.
2. Farmers receive Rs. 10,000 per hectare for cultivating sugarcane.
3. Value addition of millets is supported with subsidies.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2, and 3
10 DECEMBER 2024
1.Which of the following statements are true regarding the Bidadi Integrated Township project?
1. Developers will be given land parcels on a 99-year lease for layout and property development.
2. Land pooling is the primary method for land acquisition, with minimal reliance on outright purchases.
3. The first phase involves private developers managing the land pooling process.
4. Similar land development models have been referenced from Gujarat and Tamil Nadu.
A) 1 and 2
B) 2 and 3
C) 1, 2, and 4
D) All of the above
2.Which of the Following Statements are True?
1. Bima Sakhi Yojana aims to empower rural women by providing training in financial literacy and employment opportunities.
2. Women aged 18–50 years with no minimum education are eligible to apply to Bima Sakhi Yojana.
3. Bima Sakhis can serve as LIC agents and may also apply for development officer roles after completing the program.
A) Only 1 and 2
B) Only 1 and 3
C) Only 2 and 3
D) All of the above
3. Which of the following statements are true?
1. Sanjay Malhotra is the 25th Governor of the Reserve Bank of India.
2. His term as Governor begins on December 11, 2024.
3. Malhotra has a Computer Science degree from IIT Kanpur.
4. Shaktikanta Das served as the 15th Governor of the RBI.
A) 1 and 4
B) 1, 3, and 4
C) 2 and 3
D) 2, 3, and 4
4. Which of the following statements are true about INS Tushil?
1. INS Tushil is part of the Krivak III-class frigates.
2. All four ships under the 2016 India-Russia deal are being built in India.
3. INS Tushil is designed for operations in air, surface, underwater, and electromagnetic dimensions.
4. COVID-19 and the Ukraine war delayed its construction timeline.
A) All of the above
B) 1, 2, and 3 only
C) 2 and 4 only
D) 1, 3, and 4 only
5. Which of the following statements are true regarding Kerala’s “Operation Smile” initiative for the Koraga tribe?
1. The Koraga tribe is a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG) residing in Kerala and Karnataka.
2. The primary aim of “Operation Smile” is to provide land titles (patta) to the Koraga tribe.
3. The Koraga tribe follows a patriarchal family system.
4. The initiative is specifically focused on the Kasaragod and Manjeswaram taluks in Kerala.
A) 1, 2, and 4 only
B) 1, 3, and 4 only
C) 2, 3, and 4 only
D) All of the above
MCQ CHALLENGE FOR KAS PRELIMS – DAY 73
1. Which of the following statements are true regarding the diversity of Indian agriculture?
1. India has a uniform climate across all regions, suitable for limited crop cultivation.
2. The country is a leading producer of rice, wheat, and spices.
3. India’s diverse climate supports the cultivation of a wide variety of crops.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the above
2. Which of the following statements about small and marginal landholdings in India is true?
1. Over 86% of farmers in India are small and marginal.
2. These small landholdings enhance productivity.
3. Fragmented landholdings require government support for productivity improvement.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the above
3. Which of the following are true about food crops in Indian agriculture?
1. Food crops occupy a significant portion of agricultural land.
2. Pulses, wheat, and rice are major food crops grown in India.
3. The focus on food crops hampers diversification into cash crops.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the above
4. Which of the following statements are correct about monsoon dependency in Indian agriculture?
1. Around 60% of agriculture in India is rainfed.
2. Monsoon dependency leads to stable agricultural output.
3. Climatic variability poses risks to agriculture.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. All of the above
5.Which of the following statements about mixed farming and intercropping are true?
1. Mixed farming integrates livestock rearing with crop cultivation.
2. Intercropping increases land productivity and reduces risks.
3. Intercropping is only practiced in high-tech farming regions.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. All of the above
6. Which of the following is correct regarding labor-intensive practices in Indian agriculture?
1. Indian agriculture relies heavily on manual labor.
2. Mechanization has replaced labor-intensive methods in most areas.
3. A gradual shift to modern technologies is observed.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. All of the above
7. Which of the following are true about agriculture’s economic contribution in India?
1. Agriculture contributes about 18-20% to the GDP.
2. The sector employs approximately 42.6% of the workforce.
3. It is the largest contributor to India’s GDP.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the above
8. Which of the following is true about agriculture and food security in India?
1. Agriculture ensures food security for over 1.4 billion people.
2. The Public Distribution System relies on agricultural production.
3. Food security in India does not depend on agricultural performance.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the above
9.Which of the following statements about agriculture’s export potential are correct?
1. India is a major exporter of rice and spices.
2. Agricultural exports contribute to foreign exchange earnings.
3. Agriculture is not significant for India’s export economy.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the above
10.Which of the following statements about sustainable practices in agriculture are correct?
1. Organic farming promotes sustainability.
2. Agroforestry helps in combating climate change.
3. Sustainable practices decrease long-term productivity.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the above
9 DECEMBER 2024
1. Which of the following statements about Karnataka’s marine exports is true?
1. Karnataka ranked second in marine exports in 2023-24.
2. Karnataka’s marine exports declined to 2.735 lakh tonnes in 2023-24.
3. Karnataka leads the nation in shrimp farming area.
4. Karnataka’s marine fish production increased in 2023-24.
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) 1 and 4
D) 2 and 3
2.Which of the following statements are true regarding the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) changes announced in RBI’s December 2024 monetary policy?
1. CRR was reduced by 50 basis points to 4%.
2. The CRR cut released ₹1.16 lakh crore liquidity into the banking system.
3. CRR earns interest for banks when maintained with the RBI.
4. The CRR cut will reduce banks’ lending capacity.
A) Only 1 and 2 are true.
B) Only 1, 2, and 3 are true.
C) Only 1 and 3 are true.
D) Only 2 and 4 are true.
3. Which of the following statements about Dal Lake is true?
1. Dal Lake is a freshwater lake spanning 18 sq. km in Srinagar.
2. The Char Chinar island is known for its ancient pine trees.
3. Dal Lake is surrounded by the Aravalli Hills.
4. Floating gardens on Dal Lake are famous for flower and vegetable markets.
A) Only 1 and 2
B) Only 3 and 4
C) Only 1 and 4
D) All of the above
4. Which of the following statements about gait analysis are true?
1. Gait analysis helps detect locomotion abnormalities during running or walking.
2. It evaluates only skeletal systems without considering visual or vestibular functions.
3. It diagnoses bone deformities and skeletal misalignments.
4. Gait analysis is unrelated to monitoring disease progression.
A) 1, 2, and 3
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 4 only
D) All of the above
5.Which of the following statements about the red gram crisis in Karnataka are true?
1. Kalaburagi is known as the ‘Toor Bowl of Karnataka.’
2. November rainfall was 5 mm, 70% below normal levels.
3. Farmers received ₹25,000 per acre as compensation.
4. Outdated land records hindered crop insurance claims.
A) Only 1 and 2
B) Only 1, 2, and 4
C) Only 1 and 3
D) All statements are true
MCQ CHALLENGE FOR KAS PRELIMS – DAY 72
1. Which of the following statements are true?
1. The Rig Veda contains references to agricultural practices.
2. Early Indian agriculture depended solely on monsoon rains.
3. Domestication of rice began in India during the 18th century.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
2. Which of the following statements are true about Green Revolution?
1. It introduced high-yielding varieties of rice and wheat.
2. Norman Borlaug played a key role in its success.
3. It focused exclusively on oilseeds and pulses.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
3. Which of the following statements are true regarding White Revolution?
1. Verghese Kurien is associated with this revolution.
2. It made India the largest milk producer in the world.
3. It focused on rice production.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
4. Which of the following statements are true regarding Blue Revolution?
1. It focuses on fish and aquaculture production.
2. It began during the 1980s.
3. India became the largest fish producer globally.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
5. Which of the following statements are true regarding Challenges in Indian Agriculture?
1. Over-reliance on rainfed agriculture.
2. Rising costs of fertilizers and inputs.
3. Decline in the use of hybrid seeds.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
6. Which of the following statements are true regarding Key Features of Yellow Revolution?
1. It focused on increasing edible oil production.
2. It was launched during the 1960s.
3. Technology Mission on Oilseeds was a key initiative.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
7. Which of the following statements are true regarding Golden Revolution?
1. It relates to horticulture and honey production.
2. India became the largest producer of mango and banana.
3. It focused on increasing the yield of coffee plantations.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
8. Which of the following statements are true regarding Agricultural Revolutions?
1. The Pink Revolution focused on onion and prawn production.
2. The Silver Revolution boosted egg production.
3. The Brown Revolution emphasized horticulture.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
9. Which of the following statements are true regarding Food Security in India?
1. Food grain production increased 6 times post-1950s.
2. India’s agriculture sector contributes 50% to GDP.
3. India is the largest global producer of pulses.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
10. Which of the following statements are true regarding Fisheries Development in India?
1. Marine aquaculture is central to the Blue Revolution.
2. India is the second-largest fish producer globally.
3. Sardine and carp are prominent fish species.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
MCQ CHALLENGE FOR KAS PRELIMS – DAY 71
Passage 1:
Governance in a democracy is often a balancing act. Governments need to ensure individual freedoms while maintaining societal order. This involves crafting laws that reflect public opinion and morality without becoming draconian. However, with rapidly advancing technology, issues like surveillance, misinformation, and privacy pose significant challenges. Striking a balance between national security and individual privacy has become a critical debate worldwide. Public participation and transparent policymaking are key to navigating these challenges effectively.
Questions:
1.The primary purpose of the passage is to:
a) Emphasize the importance of governance.
b) Discuss challenges in a democratic governance system.
c) Advocate for stronger surveillance measures.
d) Criticize the advancement of technology.
2.According to the passage, crafting laws in a democracy requires:
a) Enforcing strict surveillance systems.
b) Limiting public opinion’s role.
c) Balancing individual freedoms with societal order.
d) Following international practices.
3.What does the passage suggest is essential for addressing modern challenges in governance?
a) Rapid implementation of laws.
b) Increased use of advanced technology.
c) Public participation and transparency in policymaking.
d) Limiting individual privacy to ensure national security.
4.The challenges mentioned in the passage primarily arise due to:
a) Inefficient governance.
b) Technological advancements.
c) A lack of public morality.
d) Economic disparities.
5.The tone of the passage can best be described as:
a) Cautious and analytical.
b) Pessimistic and critical.
c) Optimistic and encouraging.
d) Neutral and detached.
Passage 2:
Climate change has emerged as one of the most pressing global challenges. Rising temperatures, melting polar ice caps, and extreme weather events are reshaping ecosystems and economies. Despite widespread scientific consensus on its anthropogenic origins, the global community struggles to implement coordinated actions. Economic dependencies on fossil fuels and political reluctance often hinder progress. Transitioning to renewable energy and adopting sustainable practices require not just policy changes but also a shift in societal mindset.
Questions:
1.The main idea of the passage is:
a) Climate change is solely caused by natural phenomena.
b) Economic and political factors hinder climate action.
c) Renewable energy is the only solution to climate change.
d) Rising temperatures are reshaping the global economy.
2.The passage attributes the primary cause of climate change to:
a) Human activities.
b) Natural processes.
c) Economic dependencies.
d) Political indecision.
3.What does the author suggest is necessary to combat climate change?
a) Immediate abandonment of fossil fuels.
b) A global consensus on technological development.
c) Policy changes and a societal mindset shift.
d) Increased research into polar ice caps.
4.Why does the global community struggle with climate action?
a) Lack of understanding about climate change.
b) Dependence on fossil fuels and political reluctance.
c) Absence of extreme weather events.
d) Scarcity of renewable energy resources.
5.The tone of the passage is best described as:
a) Alarmist and exaggerated.
b) Objective and informative.
c) Optimistic and hopeful.
d) Critical and dismissive.
Passage 3:
In the digital age, the dissemination of knowledge has become easier and faster. Online platforms, e-books, and open-source materials have democratized access to information. However, the rapid spread of misinformation poses a significant threat to societal harmony. False narratives often gain traction due to their emotional appeal and virality. While technological tools to counter misinformation exist, fostering critical thinking among the population remains the most sustainable solution to this problem.
Questions:
1.The passage primarily discusses:
a) The benefits of online platforms for education.
b) The rapid spread of misinformation and its consequences.
c) The role of emotional appeal in education.
d) Technological tools as a solution to misinformation.
2.According to the passage, what is the primary reason false narratives spread rapidly?
a) Emotional appeal and virality.
b) Lack of regulation in online platforms.
c) High accessibility of e-books.
d) Unavailability of technological tools.
3.What does the passage identify as the most sustainable solution to misinformation?
a) Banning false narratives.
b) Implementing stricter online regulations.
c) Promoting critical thinking.
d) Enhancing the virality of true information.
4.The term “democratized access to information” implies:
a) Restricted access to verified information.
b) Equal access to information for everyone.
c) Technological monopoly over information.
d) Government control over online platforms.
5.The tone of the passage can best be described as:
a) Optimistic and celebratory.
b) Analytical and cautionary.
c) Sarcastic and dismissive.
d) Neutral and unopinionated.
6 DECEMBER 2024
1.Which of the following statements about Karnataka’s Circular Economy Policy is true?
1. 20% sustainable materials are required for government construction projects.
2. Tax incentives for sustainable practices are limited to industrial sectors only.
3. The policy includes initiatives to manage waste in water bodies.
4. Recycled materials will be tested in collaboration with the Forest Department.
A) 1, 2, and 3
B) 1, 3, and 4
C) 2, 3, and 4
D) All of the above
2.Which of the following statements about drought challenges is true?
1. By 2050, 50% of the global population will face drought risks.
2. Human activities like urbanization exacerbate drought conditions.
3. India’s soybean sector is immune to drought impacts.
4. Early warning systems can help reduce drought risks.
A) 1 and 3
B) 1, 2, and 4
C) 2 and 4
D) All of the above
3. Which of the following are key features of PROBA-3’s imaging and scientific goals?
1. Observes the Sun’s corona in visible, UV, IR, and polarized light spectrums.
2. Extends observations to 1.1 solar radii from the Sun.
3. Focuses on mapping the Earth’s magnetic field.
4. Demonstrates advanced formation flying technology.
A) 1, 2, and 4
B) 1, 3, and 4
C) 2 and 3 only
D) All of the above
4. Which of the following is true under the Hastakala Setu Yojana?
1. Bharuch’s ‘Sujni’ craft and Surat’s ‘Saadeli’ art were recently recognized.
2. Ahmedabad’s ‘Saudagiri Print’ and ‘Maata Ni Pacchedi’ are among the included crafts.
3. Gujarat’s 27th GI tag under the program was awarded for ‘Soof’ embroidery.
4. The Hastakala Setu Yojana only promotes Gujarat’s handicrafts.
A) 1 and 2
B) 2 and 4
C) 3 and 4
D) 1 and 3
5. Which of the following statements about tiger reserves in India is TRUE?
1. Tiger reserves were first established under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
2. India accounts for 50% of the global tiger population.
3. Ratapani Wildlife Sanctuary is India’s 57th tiger reserve as of December 2024.
4. The buffer area of a tiger reserve is exclusively forest land.
A) 1, 2, and 3
B) 2 and 4
C) 3 only
D) 1 and 3
MCQ CHALLENGE FOR KAS PRELIMS – DAY 70
1. Which of the following statements are true about the history of rural cooperatives in Karnataka?
1. The first cooperative society in India was registered in Karnataka in 1905.
2. Karnataka was the first state to provide agricultural loans through cooperatives at 5% interest.
3. The Mysore Co-operative Societies Act of 1959 was implemented in 1960.
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) All of the above
2. Which of the following statements about credit cooperatives in Karnataka is true?
1. Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS) play a key role at the village level.
2. Credit cooperatives primarily serve fishermen in Karnataka.
3. They provide affordable loans to small businesses and farmers.
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) All of the above
3. Regarding dairy cooperatives in Karnataka, which statements are correct?
1. Karnataka Cooperative Milk Producers Federation (KMF) operates under the Amul model.
2. Dairy cooperatives primarily cater to urban households.
3. They provide veterinary care and stable income sources for rural farmers.
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) All of the above
4. Which of the following statements are true about sugar cooperatives in Karnataka?
1. They operate sugar mills and support sugarcane farmers.
2. They are primarily concentrated in coastal areas.
3. Mysore Sugars Company (MySugar) is one of the oldest sugar cooperatives in the state.
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) All of the above
5. Which statements are correct about fisheries cooperatives in Karnataka?
1. They provide fishermen with boats and nets.
2. These cooperatives are especially active in coastal areas like Mangalore and Udupi.
3. Fisheries cooperatives do not focus on market access for fishermen.
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) All of the above
6. Which of the following statements about rural cooperatives’ impact in Karnataka is true?
1. They generate substantial rural employment opportunities.
2. They primarily focus on financial inclusion, neglecting agricultural productivity.
3. Cooperatives empower farmers economically by reducing dependency on moneylenders.
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) All of the above
7. Which statements about the role of the Karnataka Government in cooperatives are correct?
1. Interest subsidies are provided for loans through budgetary provisions.
2. The government acts as a regulator and supervisor for cooperatives.
3. Self-governance and independent decision-making were promoted post-2008.
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) All of the above
8. Regarding the Karnataka Cooperative Milk Producers Federation (KMF), which statements are true?
1. It is one of India’s largest milk producers.
2. It produces a range of dairy products under the brand Nandini.
3. It primarily caters to international markets.
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) All of the above
9. Which of the following is true about the role of Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS) in Karnataka?
1. They provide farmers with short- and medium-term credit.
2. PACS primarily focus on fisheries and housing loans.
3. They are the first point of contact for farmers needing fertilizer and seeds.
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) All of the above
10. Which statements about women’s empowerment through cooperatives are correct?
1. Women play active roles in dairy and credit cooperatives.
2. Cooperatives have improved financial independence among rural women.
3. Women’s participation in cooperatives is minimal and symbolic.
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) All of the above
MCQ CHALLENGE FOR KAS PRELIMS – DAY 69
1. Which of the Following Statements are True?
1. The Mysore (Personal and Miscellaneous) Inams Abolition Act, 1954, aimed to abolish inam lands.
2. The Karnataka Land Reforms Act, 1961, allowed non-agriculturists to purchase agricultural land.
a) Only 1 is true
b) Only 2 is true
c) Both 1 and 2 are true
d) Neither 1 nor 2 is true
2. Which of the Following Statements are True?
1. The Karnataka Land Reforms Act of 1974 introduced the slogan “Land to the tiller.”
2. The 1974 Act removed land ownership restrictions for non-farming families.
a) Only 1 is true
b) Only 2 is true
c) Both 1 and 2 are true
d) Neither 1 nor 2 is true
3. Which of the Following Statements are True?
1. Under the Karnataka Land Reforms Act, 1961, firms earning over ₹25 lakhs per year can purchase agricultural land.
2. The 2020 amendment removed income restrictions on owning agricultural land in Karnataka.
a) Only 1 is true
b) Only 2 is true
c) Both 1 and 2 are true
d) Neither 1 nor 2 is true
4. Which of the Following Statements are True?
1. The Gundappa Gowda Committee was established in 1947 to abolish the inamdari system.
2. The Mysore Act I of 1955 granted land ownership to all tenants.
a) Only 1 is true
b) Only 2 is true
c) Both 1 and 2 are true
d) Neither 1 nor 2 is true
5. Which of the Following Statements are True?
1. The B.D. Jatti Samithi recommended the prohibition of leasing agricultural land.
2. The Karnataka Land Reforms Act of 1961 set a family landholding limit of 216 acres for dry land.
a) Only 1 is true
b) Only 2 is true
c) Both 1 and 2 are true
d) Neither 1 nor 2 is true
6. Which of the Following Statements are True?
1. Devaraj Urs emphasized agricultural development and social justice through land reforms.
2. The 1961 Act prohibited the granting of agricultural land for mining purposes.
a) Only 1 is true
b) Only 2 is true
c) Both 1 and 2 are true
d) Neither 1 nor 2 is true
7. Which of the Following Statements are True?
1. The 1974 amendment to the Karnataka Land Reforms Act allowed tenants to own land by paying 15–20 times the net annual income.
2. The Karnataka Land Reforms Act, 1961, prohibited the transfer of land to non-agriculturists.
a) Only 1 is true
b) Only 2 is true
c) Both 1 and 2 are true
d) Neither 1 nor 2 is true
8. Which of the Following Statements are True?
1. Land classified under Schedule I of the 1961 Act includes A, B, C, and D class lands.
2. Class A lands have irrigation facilities for two crops of paddy or one crop of sugarcane per year.
a) Only 1 is true
b) Only 2 is true
c) Both 1 and 2 are true
d) Neither 1 nor 2 is true
9. Which of the Following Statements are True?
1. The 1961 Act set the maximum tenure for plantations at 100 acres.
2. Minors under 18 years of age were exempted from the landholding restrictions.
a) Only 1 is true
b) Only 2 is true
c) Both 1 and 2 are true
d) Neither 1 nor 2 is true
10. Which of the Following Statements are True?
1. Section 63 of the Karnataka Land Reforms Act 1961 limits landholdings to 10 units per individual.
2. Section 79B restricted agricultural land ownership to only farming families before its repeal in 2020.
a) Only 1 is true
b) Only 2 is true
c) Both 1 and 2 are true
d) Neither 1 nor 2 is true
4 DECEMBER 2024
1.Which of the following statements are true?
1. The PM E-DRIVE scheme was launched on September 29, 2023.
2. Karnataka is seeking 5,000 electric buses for Bengaluru.
3. BMTC currently operates over 10,000 buses.
4. Rs 10,900 crore has been allocated under PM E-DRIVE for electric vehicle infrastructure.
A) 1 and 2
B) 2 and 4
C) 1 and 3
D) 3 and 4
2. Which of the following statements are true regarding the Supreme Court’s recent directives on the PoSH Act?
1. District officers must be appointed by December 31, 2025.
2. Local Complaints Committees (LCCs) should be formed by January 31, 2025.
3. The SheBox portal is meant to centralize complaints and committee details.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) All of the above
3. Which innovative features were highlighted at the ‘Agriculture Future Forward: Startup Conclave’ hosted by the University of Agricultural Sciences in Bengaluru?
1. AI-enabled beekeeping innovations
2. Genome-editing technologies
3. Space agriculture technologies
4. Greenhouse automation systems
A) 1 and 2
B) 2 and 3
C) 3 and 4
D) 1 and 4
4.What is the main purpose of the YesToAccess app launched on the International Day of Persons with Disabilities?
1. To provide medical assistance to disabled individuals
2. To assess the accessibility of public spaces
3. To raise awareness about disability issues
4. To offer job opportunities for disabled people
A) 1 and 3
B) 2 only
C) 3 and 4
D) 1 and 2
5. Which of the following is true regarding the reclassification of packaged drinking water and mineral water by FSSAI?
1. They have been classified as a “Low Risk Food Category”
2. They will now undergo annual risk-based inspections and third-party audits
3. The move is aimed at reducing consumer protection
4. The reclassification will not affect manufacturers of bottled water
A) 1 and 3
B) 1 and 2
C) 3 and 4
D) 2 only
MCQ CHALLENGE FOR KAS PRELIMS – DAY 68
1. Which of the following statements about the evolution of Panchayati Raj in Karnataka is true?
1. Agrahara villages were headed by local farmers.
2. British reorganization introduced Local Fund Committees in Mysore in 1874.
3. Lord Rippon’s Act (1882) allowed full liberalization of local governance.
4. The Mysore Local Boards Act (1903) created a three-tier local government system.
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 4
C. 3 and 4
D. 1 and 3
2. Which of the following statements about post-independence Panchayati Raj developments is true?
1. The Venkatappa Committee recommended a two-tier system for Gram Panchayats.
2. The Mysore Gram Panchayat Act (1952) achieved all its intended outcomes.
3. The Chandrasekharaya Committee recommended a focus on Taluk Boards.
4. The Kondajji Basappa Committee suggested a centralized structure.
A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 4
C. 1 and 4
D. 2 and 3
3. Which of the following is true regarding the Karnataka Panchayat Raj Act of 1993?
1. It established a three-tier system of governance.
2. It introduced Grama Panchayats at the block level.
3. Zilla Panchayats are responsible for district-wide planning.
4. Taluk Panchayats consolidate village-level plans.
A. 1, 3, and 4
B. 2, 3, and 4
C. 1 and 3
D. 1, 2, and 4
4. Which of the following features of Panchayat elections in Karnataka is true?
1. Rotational reservation ensures inclusivity.
2. Members are elected by the Grama Sabha.
3. Asset declarations by elected members are mandatory.
4. Elections are overseen by the State Election Commission.
A. 1 and 4
B. 2, 3, and 4
C. 1, 3, and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3
5. Which of the following are functions of Grama Panchayats as per the Karnataka Panchayat Raj Act?
1. Maintaining sanitation and drainage.
2. Providing universal immunization for children.
3. Constructing state highways.
4. Maintaining census records.
A. 1, 2, and 4
B. 1 and 3
C. 2, 3, and 4
D. All of the above
6. Which of the following statements about financial resources of Panchayats is true?
1. Panchayats receive grants from the State Finance Commission.
2. Property taxes are the only source of revenue for Panchayats.
3. Delays in stamp duty transfer impacted Taluk Panchayats in 2015-16.
4. Revenue expenditure increased in social services from 2011-16.
A. 1 and 4
B. 1, 3, and 4
C. 2 and 4
D. 1 and 2
7. Which of the following is true about the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments in Karnataka?
1. The 73rd Amendment mandated a three-tier Panchayat Raj system.
2. Karnataka was the first state to implement the three-tier system.
3. The 74th Amendment introduced the concept of Zilla Panchayats.
4. Grama Panchayat elections were first held under this amendment in 1993.
A. 1 and 2
B. 1, 2, and 4
C. 2, 3, and 4
D. All of the above
8. Which of the following statements about District Planning Committees (DPC) is true?
1. DPCs consolidate plans from all local bodies in the district.
2. DPCs are chaired by the Deputy Commissioner.
3. Recommendations of the DPC are binding on all local bodies.
4. The Chief Executive Officer acts as the Secretary of the DPC.
A. 1 and 4
B. 2 and 3
C. 1, 3, and 4
D. All of the above
9. Which of the following statements about standing committees in Panchayat Raj Institutions is true?
1. Taluk Panchayats have committees for finance and planning.
2. Zilla Panchayats oversee educational policies.
3. Grama Panchayats have standing committees for social justice.
4. Committees are elected directly by Grama Sabha members.
A. 1 and 2
B. 1, 2, and 3
C. 3 and 4
D. All of the above
10. Which of the following describes key features of Panchamitra in Karnataka?
1. It integrates digital payment options.
2. It facilitates grievances related to MGNREGA.
3. It allows citizens to track meeting outcomes.
4. It is only available to elected officials.
A. 1, 2, and 3
B. 1 and 4
C. 2, 3, and 4
D. All of the above
3 DECEMBER 2024
1. Which of the following statements are true about the PRAGATI system?
1. PRAGATI has fast-tracked projects worth $205 billion in India.
2. The system primarily focuses on improving health services.
3. PRAGATI integrates technologies such as Digital Data Management, Video-Conferencing, and Geo-Spatial Technology.
4. The PRAGATI system operates solely within the Union Government without any state involvement.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 4
D) 1 and 4
2. Which of the following statements are true about the Urban Infrastructure Development Fund (UIDF)?
1. The UIDF is funded through the priority sector lending shortfall to support urban infrastructure development in Tier-2 and Tier-3 cities.
2. The fund is managed by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
3. The initial corpus of UIDF is ₹50,000 crore to enhance urban infrastructure.
4. The UIDF loans are repayable in five equal annual instalments within seven years.
A) 1 and 4
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 4
D) 1 and 2
3. Which of the following is/are true about UIDF loans?
1. The interest rate on UIDF loans is set at Bank Rate minus 1.5%.
2. States must repay the loans in 10 equal instalments over 15 years.
3. The interest on UIDF loans is paid quarterly.
4. The loans are primarily used for Sewerage and Solid Waste Management.
A) 1 and 3
B) 1 and 4
C) 2 and 3
D) 3 and 4
4. Who chairs the Advisory Committee on National Accounts Statistics (ACNAS)?
A) Rao Inderjit Singh
B) Nirmala Sitharaman
C) Saurabh Garg
D) Biswanath Goldar
5.Who claimed the third spot in the 2024 FIM Bajas World Cup?
A) Aishwarya Pissay
B) CS Santosh
C) Ashish Raorane
D) KP Aravind
MCQ CHALLENGE FOR KAS PRELIMS – DAY 67
1. Which of the following statements are true regarding the 73rd Amendment Act?
1. It introduced the 11th Schedule listing 29 subjects under Panchayati Raj.
2. It applies uniformly across all Indian states, including Scheduled and Tribal areas.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Which of the following statements are true about Gram Sabhas under the 73rd Amendment?
1. The Gram Sabha consists of all registered voters within the panchayat area.
2. Gram Sabhas are exempted from taking up responsibilities as per State Legislature directives.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Which of the following statements about Panchayat elections is correct?
1. Panchayat elections must be held every six years.
2. The State Election Commission oversees Panchayat elections.
